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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
24 year old presents to the emergency department after ingestion of their Bupropion. They took approximately 50 tablets of 100mg which they normally take twice a day. Ingestion occurred approximately 3 hours ago. They didn’t have any nausea or vomiting after the ingestion and current vital signs are; HR 94, BP 120/76, RR 18, Temp 37.5. What is your disposition/treatment of the patient?
Correct
Bupropion can induce seizures even at therapeutic levels. Other adverse effects include tachycardia, tremulousness, hallucinations, and QRS prolongation. Cyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline), SSRIs (fluoxetine), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (phenelzine) can also cause seizures but less frequently than bupropion and usually with other symptoms of serious intoxication, such as central nervous system depression or QRS prolongation. Delayed seizures are seen with Bupropion overdose especially the extended release formulation.
Incorrect
Bupropion can induce seizures even at therapeutic levels. Other adverse effects include tachycardia, tremulousness, hallucinations, and QRS prolongation. Cyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline), SSRIs (fluoxetine), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (phenelzine) can also cause seizures but less frequently than bupropion and usually with other symptoms of serious intoxication, such as central nervous system depression or QRS prolongation. Delayed seizures are seen with Bupropion overdose especially the extended release formulation.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 32-year-old man with bipolar disorder is brought to the ED for altered mental status. He admits to taking an overdose of valproic acid approximately 24 hours ago. His vital signs are within normal limits, but he is lethargic and vomiting. His laboratory values are notable for a serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL, valproic acid level of 600 mg/L, and an ammonia level of 120 mg/dL. Hepatic transaminases and arterial blood gas are within normal limits. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct
This patient has significant valproic acid (VPA) toxicity, as evidenced by altered mental status, elevated VPA level, and hyperammonemia. Valproic acid is used to treat seizures, migraines, and mood disorders. The range of therapeutic concentration for VPA is 50–100 mg/L. In the setting of overdose, CNS depression, encephalopathy, metabolic acidosis, hepatoxicity, pancreatitis, renal failure, and pancytopenia may occur. Hyperammonemia is caused by depletion of L-carnitine and acetyl CoA, which inhibits the urea cycle. L-carnitine administration can improve these metabolic abnormalities and is the treatment of choice for severe VPA overdose. Serial VPA and ammonia concentrations should be obtained.
Activated charcoal (A) binds VPA effectively, and multiple dose-activated charcoal can be of utility due to enterohepatic recirculation; however, the patient in this scenario ingested valproic acid 24 hours prior to presentation, thus limiting the potential benefit of activated charcoal. Additionally, the patient is lethargic and vomiting, so charcoal administration is potentially harmful in the setting of an unprotected airway. Hemodialysis (B) and hemoperfusion can be of utility for very large VPA overdoses with significant acidosis and renal failure. The patient in this scenario has normal renal function and normal pH. Although VPA is an acid, urinary alkalinization (D) does not increase urinary excretion and is not indicated. Whole-bowel irrigation with polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution (E) can be of utility if a delayed or extended-release product is ingested. Once again, the utility of this therapy is limited 24 hours postingestion and requires a secure airway.
Incorrect
This patient has significant valproic acid (VPA) toxicity, as evidenced by altered mental status, elevated VPA level, and hyperammonemia. Valproic acid is used to treat seizures, migraines, and mood disorders. The range of therapeutic concentration for VPA is 50–100 mg/L. In the setting of overdose, CNS depression, encephalopathy, metabolic acidosis, hepatoxicity, pancreatitis, renal failure, and pancytopenia may occur. Hyperammonemia is caused by depletion of L-carnitine and acetyl CoA, which inhibits the urea cycle. L-carnitine administration can improve these metabolic abnormalities and is the treatment of choice for severe VPA overdose. Serial VPA and ammonia concentrations should be obtained.
Activated charcoal (A) binds VPA effectively, and multiple dose-activated charcoal can be of utility due to enterohepatic recirculation; however, the patient in this scenario ingested valproic acid 24 hours prior to presentation, thus limiting the potential benefit of activated charcoal. Additionally, the patient is lethargic and vomiting, so charcoal administration is potentially harmful in the setting of an unprotected airway. Hemodialysis (B) and hemoperfusion can be of utility for very large VPA overdoses with significant acidosis and renal failure. The patient in this scenario has normal renal function and normal pH. Although VPA is an acid, urinary alkalinization (D) does not increase urinary excretion and is not indicated. Whole-bowel irrigation with polyethylene glycol electrolyte solution (E) can be of utility if a delayed or extended-release product is ingested. Once again, the utility of this therapy is limited 24 hours postingestion and requires a secure airway.
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 22-year old man recently diagnosed with schizophrenia presents to the ED with altered mental status. His blood pressure is 160/80 mm Hg, pulse 130 beats per minute and temperature is 39.5°C. He is noted to be confused and diaphoretic. He has muscle rigidity and a tremor in his hands. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) a life-threatening condition characterized by muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, altered mental status, and hyperthermia that occurs soon after initiation or dose adjustment of adopaminergic or antipsychotic drug. This patient was likely started on an antipsychotic mediation when he was diagnosed with schizophrenia. Other risk factors for the development of NMS include high dosage, high-potency antipsychotic medications, parenteral formulation, dehydration, preceding psychomotor agitation, and previous episodes of NMS. The diagnosis is made when a patient develops severe muscle rigidity and hyperthermia while taking a neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication and develops two or more of the following symptoms: diaphoresis, dysphagia, tremor, incontinence, altered mental status, tachycardia, mutism, hypertension or labile blood pressure, rhabdomyolysis, leukocytosis and symptoms are not caused by another substance, neurologic, medical or psychological disorder.
Malignant hyperthermia (A) occurs with the use of certain anesthetic agents (halothane and succinylcholine) and manifests as severe muscle rigidity and hyperthermia. Serotonin syndrome (C) results from excessive serotonin accumulation in the synaptic cleft and manifests as a triad of altered mental status, autonomic instability and neuromuscular abnormality. Serotonin syndrome often occurs as the result of a drug-drug interaction between medications that increase the amount of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, however can occur following an overdose with an SSRI. A tyramine reaction (D) is a drug-food interaction that occurs when a patient taking an MAOI inhibitor ingests a tyramine containing food. Symptoms start immediately following ingestion and include headache, hypertension, flushing, and diaphoresis.
What is the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Discontinue offending medication, supportive care, benzodiazepines, and neuromuscular blockade with airway management. Bromocriptine, amantadine and dantrolene are often cited as treatment options but have not been shown to consistently provide benefit.
Incorrect
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) a life-threatening condition characterized by muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, altered mental status, and hyperthermia that occurs soon after initiation or dose adjustment of adopaminergic or antipsychotic drug. This patient was likely started on an antipsychotic mediation when he was diagnosed with schizophrenia. Other risk factors for the development of NMS include high dosage, high-potency antipsychotic medications, parenteral formulation, dehydration, preceding psychomotor agitation, and previous episodes of NMS. The diagnosis is made when a patient develops severe muscle rigidity and hyperthermia while taking a neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication and develops two or more of the following symptoms: diaphoresis, dysphagia, tremor, incontinence, altered mental status, tachycardia, mutism, hypertension or labile blood pressure, rhabdomyolysis, leukocytosis and symptoms are not caused by another substance, neurologic, medical or psychological disorder.
Malignant hyperthermia (A) occurs with the use of certain anesthetic agents (halothane and succinylcholine) and manifests as severe muscle rigidity and hyperthermia. Serotonin syndrome (C) results from excessive serotonin accumulation in the synaptic cleft and manifests as a triad of altered mental status, autonomic instability and neuromuscular abnormality. Serotonin syndrome often occurs as the result of a drug-drug interaction between medications that increase the amount of serotonin in the synaptic cleft, however can occur following an overdose with an SSRI. A tyramine reaction (D) is a drug-food interaction that occurs when a patient taking an MAOI inhibitor ingests a tyramine containing food. Symptoms start immediately following ingestion and include headache, hypertension, flushing, and diaphoresis.
What is the treatment of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Discontinue offending medication, supportive care, benzodiazepines, and neuromuscular blockade with airway management. Bromocriptine, amantadine and dantrolene are often cited as treatment options but have not been shown to consistently provide benefit.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain for 1 day. He admits to cocaine use approximately 15 minutes prior to the onset of his chest pain. Past medical history is significant for hypertension. Medications include benazepril and hydrochlorothiazide. Vitals BP 190/110 HR 90 RR 14 O2sat 98%. Exam reveals clear lung sounds bilaterally and a heart rate with regular rhythm and no murmurs. EKG is shown. Which of the following is your next step in management?
Correct
A) The patient in the question stem is suffering from cocaine induced chest pain. The EKG demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy, R wave in aVL >11mm, with strain pattern in I and aVL. Given the active chest pain, in the absence of ST-segment elevation, immediate treatment involves supportive care and serial troponin/ECGs.
B) There is no ST-segment elevation to indicate thrombolytics
C) There is no ST-segment elevation to indicate percutaneous coronary intervention
D) There is no evidence the patient is suffering from an aortic dissection and would thus not require further imaging.
Incorrect
A) The patient in the question stem is suffering from cocaine induced chest pain. The EKG demonstrates left ventricular hypertrophy, R wave in aVL >11mm, with strain pattern in I and aVL. Given the active chest pain, in the absence of ST-segment elevation, immediate treatment involves supportive care and serial troponin/ECGs.
B) There is no ST-segment elevation to indicate thrombolytics
C) There is no ST-segment elevation to indicate percutaneous coronary intervention
D) There is no evidence the patient is suffering from an aortic dissection and would thus not require further imaging.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
.Which of the following statements regarding phenytoin toxicity is true?
Correct
.Phenytoin has delayed and erratic gastrointestinal absorption; therefore, multiple-dose activated charcoal can be of utility for phenytoin overdose. Phenytoin has also been known to form concretions in the intestinal tract. In fact, phenytoin levels may continue to rise for days after ingestion. Phenytoin is bound by activated charcoal; charcoal should be administered to patients with a secure airway. Multiple-dose activated charcoal can be administered every two to four hours (provided the patient has active bowel sounds) to minimize drug absorption and decrease the half-life of phenytoin. The most common manifestations of phenytoin toxicity include nystagmus, somnolence, dizziness, gastrointestinal disturbances, and headache.
Cardiac toxicity (A) occurs almost exclusively with intravenous preparations of phenytoin. Even though phenytoin is a sodium channel blocker with Vaughan-Williams class 1B antiarrhythmic effects, cardiotoxic manifestations are largely attributed to diluents (i.e., propylene glycol and ethanol) used in the IV formulation. Clinical manifestations include hypotension and (somewhat paradoxically) dysrhythmias, which can lead to cardiovascular collapse and death. These effects are rarely observed with the oral formulation due to the lack of diluent. Phenytoin is highly protein bound. Because dialysis (B) can remove only free, unbound phenytoin, it is of limited utility in the setting of an overdose. Significant cardiovascular toxicity generally occurs at infusion rates (D) of greater than 50 mg/min (not 25 mg/min); therefore, higher infusion rates are not recommended. Cardiovascular toxicity from phenytoin appears to be a dose- and rate-related phenomenon.
Note, phenytoin may not reflect free drug concentrations. This is important because phenytoin, in general, is highly protein bound, and only free drug exerts pharmacologic effects. Free phenytoin concentrations can be elevated in states of low albumin (even with a normal total phenytoin level). In these cases, free levels should be monitored. Patients at risk for having decreased protein-binding capacity include the elderly, neonates, patients with liver disease or uremia, or patients taking medications that would displace phenytoin from albumin. The normal range for total phenytoin levels is 10–20 mg/L, whereas free concentrations should be between 1.0 and 2.1 mg/L.
Incorrect
.Phenytoin has delayed and erratic gastrointestinal absorption; therefore, multiple-dose activated charcoal can be of utility for phenytoin overdose. Phenytoin has also been known to form concretions in the intestinal tract. In fact, phenytoin levels may continue to rise for days after ingestion. Phenytoin is bound by activated charcoal; charcoal should be administered to patients with a secure airway. Multiple-dose activated charcoal can be administered every two to four hours (provided the patient has active bowel sounds) to minimize drug absorption and decrease the half-life of phenytoin. The most common manifestations of phenytoin toxicity include nystagmus, somnolence, dizziness, gastrointestinal disturbances, and headache.
Cardiac toxicity (A) occurs almost exclusively with intravenous preparations of phenytoin. Even though phenytoin is a sodium channel blocker with Vaughan-Williams class 1B antiarrhythmic effects, cardiotoxic manifestations are largely attributed to diluents (i.e., propylene glycol and ethanol) used in the IV formulation. Clinical manifestations include hypotension and (somewhat paradoxically) dysrhythmias, which can lead to cardiovascular collapse and death. These effects are rarely observed with the oral formulation due to the lack of diluent. Phenytoin is highly protein bound. Because dialysis (B) can remove only free, unbound phenytoin, it is of limited utility in the setting of an overdose. Significant cardiovascular toxicity generally occurs at infusion rates (D) of greater than 50 mg/min (not 25 mg/min); therefore, higher infusion rates are not recommended. Cardiovascular toxicity from phenytoin appears to be a dose- and rate-related phenomenon.
Note, phenytoin may not reflect free drug concentrations. This is important because phenytoin, in general, is highly protein bound, and only free drug exerts pharmacologic effects. Free phenytoin concentrations can be elevated in states of low albumin (even with a normal total phenytoin level). In these cases, free levels should be monitored. Patients at risk for having decreased protein-binding capacity include the elderly, neonates, patients with liver disease or uremia, or patients taking medications that would displace phenytoin from albumin. The normal range for total phenytoin levels is 10–20 mg/L, whereas free concentrations should be between 1.0 and 2.1 mg/L.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
.A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive at home. He was found lying on the floor in his mother’s room with prescription medications scattered all over. His mother called 911, and he was immediately rushed to the hospital by ambulance. On examination, the boy is sedated with a heart rate of 69 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 15 per minute, blood pressure 70/50 mm Hg, pulse oximetry of 99%, pupils 1–2 mm and reactive to light, and 1+ reflexes on all extremities. Blood sugar is 200 mg/dL and ECG shows QTc interval prolongation. Which of the following is the most likely medication ingested?
Correct
.The boy has signs and symptoms consistent with opioid ingestion. Methadone ingestion can manifest with the classic opioid toxidrome of respiratory depression, sedation, and miosis. Signs of more severe toxicity can include bradycardia, hypotension, and hypothermia. Methadone has been associated with a prolonged QTc interval and risk of torsades de pointes. Patients with significant respiratory or CNS depression should be treated with naloxone, which is a mu receptor antagonist. Because the half-life of methadone is longer than naloxone, patients can require multiple doses of naloxone. Also, serial ECGs are needed to monitor for the development of a prolonged QTc interval. If a patient does develop a prolonged QTc, management includes close cardiac monitoring, repletion of electrolytes, and having magnesium readily available should the patient develop torsades de pointes.
Clonidine (A) toxicity manifests as lethargy, miosis, and bradycardia. Although, findings may be similar to opioid overdose, QTc interval prolongation and torsades de pointes are typically only seen with opioid overdose. Propanolol (C) toxicity causes bradycardia and hypotension that typically develops within six hours of ingestion. Heart block and hypoglycemia may also be seen. Clinical manifestations of salicylate (D) toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and tinnitus. Moderate cases can manifest as tachypnea, tachycardia, and altered mental status.
Incorrect
.The boy has signs and symptoms consistent with opioid ingestion. Methadone ingestion can manifest with the classic opioid toxidrome of respiratory depression, sedation, and miosis. Signs of more severe toxicity can include bradycardia, hypotension, and hypothermia. Methadone has been associated with a prolonged QTc interval and risk of torsades de pointes. Patients with significant respiratory or CNS depression should be treated with naloxone, which is a mu receptor antagonist. Because the half-life of methadone is longer than naloxone, patients can require multiple doses of naloxone. Also, serial ECGs are needed to monitor for the development of a prolonged QTc interval. If a patient does develop a prolonged QTc, management includes close cardiac monitoring, repletion of electrolytes, and having magnesium readily available should the patient develop torsades de pointes.
Clonidine (A) toxicity manifests as lethargy, miosis, and bradycardia. Although, findings may be similar to opioid overdose, QTc interval prolongation and torsades de pointes are typically only seen with opioid overdose. Propanolol (C) toxicity causes bradycardia and hypotension that typically develops within six hours of ingestion. Heart block and hypoglycemia may also be seen. Clinical manifestations of salicylate (D) toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and tinnitus. Moderate cases can manifest as tachypnea, tachycardia, and altered mental status.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 53-year-old woman with chronic alcohol abuse presents with confusion and blurred vision. Her vital signs are normal. Physical examination reveals a wide based gait, inability to abduct her right eye fully, nystagmus and difficulty with memory. Her alcohol level is 0 mg/dl. Which of the following is most likely to diagnose this patient’s disease?
Correct
This patient presents with Wernicke syndrome, a clinical diagnosis that can be corroborated by improvement of symptoms after thiamine administration. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency with a high mortality rate (10-20%). Unfortunately, it often goes unrecognized. Diagnosis requires two of the following criteria: 1) dietary deficiency, 2) oculomotor abnormalities, 3) cerebellar dysfunction and 4) altered mental status or memory impairment. Oculomotor findings include nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellar signs typically manifest as ataxia. Patients with chronic malnourishment including alcoholics, patients with eating disorders and patients with advanced cancer are at risk for Wernicke’s. Emergent treatment consists of thiamine administration. Ophthalmoplegia and nystagmus may resolve in hours and confirms diagnosis.
Incorrect
This patient presents with Wernicke syndrome, a clinical diagnosis that can be corroborated by improvement of symptoms after thiamine administration. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a medical emergency with a high mortality rate (10-20%). Unfortunately, it often goes unrecognized. Diagnosis requires two of the following criteria: 1) dietary deficiency, 2) oculomotor abnormalities, 3) cerebellar dysfunction and 4) altered mental status or memory impairment. Oculomotor findings include nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia. Cerebellar signs typically manifest as ataxia. Patients with chronic malnourishment including alcoholics, patients with eating disorders and patients with advanced cancer are at risk for Wernicke’s. Emergent treatment consists of thiamine administration. Ophthalmoplegia and nystagmus may resolve in hours and confirms diagnosis.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
.Flumazenil administration in the setting of a benzodiazepine overdose is contraindicated with which of the following coingestants?
Correct
.Flumazenil remains a controversial antidote, but it can be used safely both diagnostically and therapeutically in a very select group of patients. Contraindications to the use of flumazenil include the coingestion of a proconvulsant drug (such as bupropion) and a history of convulsions. Bupropion, both therapeutically and in overdose, can cause convulsions. In the setting of an ingestion of both a benzodiazepine and a proconvulsant drug, flumazenil can reverse the protective effect of the benzodiazepine on seizure prevention and is thus contraindicated. In the setting of an overdose of unknown medications, the presence of findings inconsistent with a pure benzodiazepine overdose or suggestive of a proconvulsant coingestant (such as convulsions, mydriasis, tachycardia, and QRS width prolongation) contraindicates flumazenil administration.
- Carisoprodol does not cause convulsions in overdose, and therefore the coingestion of it with a benzodiazepine is not a contraindication for flumazenil administration. Carisoprodol can be associated with myoclonic jerking in overdose that can mimic convulsions, however. There is some evidence that its sedative effects can be reversed with flumazenil.
- Gabapentin does not cause convulsions in overdose, so coingestion of it with a benzodiazepine is not a contraindication for flumazenil administration.
- Phenobarbital does not cause convulsions in overdose, and, as with the other two agents, coingestion of it with a benzodiazepine is not a contraindication for flumazenil administration. Some patients take phenobarbital for a seizure disorder; the seizure disorder itself is a contraindication to the use of flumazenil, but the medication as a coingestant is not a contraindication.
Incorrect
.Flumazenil remains a controversial antidote, but it can be used safely both diagnostically and therapeutically in a very select group of patients. Contraindications to the use of flumazenil include the coingestion of a proconvulsant drug (such as bupropion) and a history of convulsions. Bupropion, both therapeutically and in overdose, can cause convulsions. In the setting of an ingestion of both a benzodiazepine and a proconvulsant drug, flumazenil can reverse the protective effect of the benzodiazepine on seizure prevention and is thus contraindicated. In the setting of an overdose of unknown medications, the presence of findings inconsistent with a pure benzodiazepine overdose or suggestive of a proconvulsant coingestant (such as convulsions, mydriasis, tachycardia, and QRS width prolongation) contraindicates flumazenil administration.
- Carisoprodol does not cause convulsions in overdose, and therefore the coingestion of it with a benzodiazepine is not a contraindication for flumazenil administration. Carisoprodol can be associated with myoclonic jerking in overdose that can mimic convulsions, however. There is some evidence that its sedative effects can be reversed with flumazenil.
- Gabapentin does not cause convulsions in overdose, so coingestion of it with a benzodiazepine is not a contraindication for flumazenil administration.
- Phenobarbital does not cause convulsions in overdose, and, as with the other two agents, coingestion of it with a benzodiazepine is not a contraindication for flumazenil administration. Some patients take phenobarbital for a seizure disorder; the seizure disorder itself is a contraindication to the use of flumazenil, but the medication as a coingestant is not a contraindication.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
.Which of the following best characterizes the presentation of patients in alcoholic ketoacidosis?
Correct
.Alcoholic ketoacidosis typically occurs in undernourished alcoholics who have recently binged on alcohol and have had limited food intake. Abdominal pain and vomiting are common. These symptoms might be related to the condition, but a thorough evaluation for other etiologies such as pancreatitis is necessary. These patients characteristically have a normal mental status despite the presence of potentially severe acidosis, and this helps distinguish alcoholic ketoacidosis from poisoning with a toxic alcohol. The acidosis in alcoholic ketoacidosis predominantly results from the presence of beta-hydroxybutyrate (a ketoacid that is not typically detected as a ketone on urinalysis). As with most acidosis, tachypnea is expected. Treatment of alcoholic ketoacidosis involves hydration with glucose-containing solutions, thiamine, food intake, and treatment of any other underlying medical conditions.
- As with other etiologies of metabolic acidosis such as diabetic ketoacidosis, tachypnea is expected as a normal compensatory mechanism, not bradypnea.
- Preservation of mental status is characteristic of alcoholic ketoacidosis, even when severe acidosis is present. This helps distinguish it from toxicity from toxic alcohols.
- Although a not-insignificant percentage of patients who present with alcoholic ketoacidosis have measurable ethanol levels, intoxication is not typical.
Incorrect
.Alcoholic ketoacidosis typically occurs in undernourished alcoholics who have recently binged on alcohol and have had limited food intake. Abdominal pain and vomiting are common. These symptoms might be related to the condition, but a thorough evaluation for other etiologies such as pancreatitis is necessary. These patients characteristically have a normal mental status despite the presence of potentially severe acidosis, and this helps distinguish alcoholic ketoacidosis from poisoning with a toxic alcohol. The acidosis in alcoholic ketoacidosis predominantly results from the presence of beta-hydroxybutyrate (a ketoacid that is not typically detected as a ketone on urinalysis). As with most acidosis, tachypnea is expected. Treatment of alcoholic ketoacidosis involves hydration with glucose-containing solutions, thiamine, food intake, and treatment of any other underlying medical conditions.
- As with other etiologies of metabolic acidosis such as diabetic ketoacidosis, tachypnea is expected as a normal compensatory mechanism, not bradypnea.
- Preservation of mental status is characteristic of alcoholic ketoacidosis, even when severe acidosis is present. This helps distinguish it from toxicity from toxic alcohols.
- Although a not-insignificant percentage of patients who present with alcoholic ketoacidosis have measurable ethanol levels, intoxication is not typical.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
.Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of opioid withdrawal?
Correct
.Opioid withdrawal is characterized by a constellation of clinical manifestations that can include abdominal pain, anxiety, diaphoresis, diarrhea, irritability, myalgias, mydriasis, piloerection (involuntary erection of the skin hairs “gooseflesh’), rhinorrhea, vomiting, and yawning. Although very uncomfortable, opioid withdrawal is not life-threatening nor is it characterized by altered level of consciousness.
- Constipation is a common manifestation of opioid use, not withdrawal. Diarrhea occurs in withdrawal.
- A significant altered level of consciousness, including delirium, is not expected in opioid withdrawal. Delirium should not be attributed to opioid withdrawal.
- Miosis is a manifestation of opioid intoxication, not withdrawal. Mydriasis is often present in withdrawal.
Incorrect
.Opioid withdrawal is characterized by a constellation of clinical manifestations that can include abdominal pain, anxiety, diaphoresis, diarrhea, irritability, myalgias, mydriasis, piloerection (involuntary erection of the skin hairs “gooseflesh’), rhinorrhea, vomiting, and yawning. Although very uncomfortable, opioid withdrawal is not life-threatening nor is it characterized by altered level of consciousness.
- Constipation is a common manifestation of opioid use, not withdrawal. Diarrhea occurs in withdrawal.
- A significant altered level of consciousness, including delirium, is not expected in opioid withdrawal. Delirium should not be attributed to opioid withdrawal.
- Miosis is a manifestation of opioid intoxication, not withdrawal. Mydriasis is often present in withdrawal.
As we continue to plod through this desert of FLIP-less conferences, we want you all to stay sharp with your in-service prep. This week we will have our quarterly tox conference, covering “neurotoxicology”: Anti-epileptics, GABA, withdrawals, hydrazines, and bupropion/cathinone. Relevant readings are posted below. No slacking.
*Required Material*
Core Content: Harwood & Nuss
- Chapter 298: Ethanol Withdrawal
- Chapter 305: Opioids
- Chapter 308: Benzodiazepines
- Chapter 311: Phenytoin
- Chapter 312: Valproic Acid
- Chapter 313: Carbamazepine
- Chapter 314: Newer Anticonvulsants
Supplementary Material
GoldFranks Tox:
Chapter 38. Opioids
Antidotes in Depth (A6): Opioid Antagonists
Chapter 47. AEDs
L-Carnitine Antidote
Chapter 78. Ethanol Withdrawal
Wiki EM:
—hydrazine
EM RAP:
—Opiate Withdrawal podcast
—Bath salts podcast
EM Docs:
—Valproic Acid
LITFL:
–-Bupropion