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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
An 18-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with his parents who are concerned about his behavior. They say he has few social relationships and prefers to work on his model aircrafts. He has never dated anyone and generally prefers to be left alone. He appears calm but withdrawn. He denies homicidality, suicidality or hallucinations. His parents do not feel he is fixated on any odd beliefs or magical thinking. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Schizoid personality disorder is classified as a cluster A personality disorder. This cluster describes patients with odd and eccentric behavior and includes paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder. Patients with schizoid personality disorder generally prefer to be left alone. They do not enjoy engaging in social or sexual relationships or interactions. They are markedly detached from society, introverted, and primarily choose solitary activities or hobbies. They may be indifferent to praise or criticism and appear withdrawn or aloof. Schizoid patients are rarely seen in clinical practice. Patients with cluster A disorders may be difficult to treat because of an intrinsic distrust or suspicion of others. They may express resistance in engaging, but it is important to be clear in explaining management intentions without becoming overly involved in their personal lives. It is also important to remain professional, direct, and empathetic toward them and not to react emotionally to their odd, inappropriate or dramatic behavior.
Antisocial personality disorder (A) is a cluster B disorder characterized by selfishness, impulsivity, promiscuity, callousness, disregard for rules or other people, pervasive deception and lying, lack of remorse, and difficulty learning from prior experiences. Patients are commonly in trouble with the law. Borderline personality disorder (B) is also a cluster B disorder and is characterized by a lack of self-control, violence, aggression, and having unstable relationships (e.g., frequent break ups). Drug abuse and suicide attempts are very common in borderline individuals. Schizoaffective disorder (C) is not a personality disorder, but rather a condition on the spectrum schizophrenia-like disorders. It is characterized by the presence of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, catatonia or grossly disorganized behavior, along with mood disturbance such as mania or major depression.
Incorrect
Schizoid personality disorder is classified as a cluster A personality disorder. This cluster describes patients with odd and eccentric behavior and includes paranoid personality disorder and schizotypal personality disorder. Patients with schizoid personality disorder generally prefer to be left alone. They do not enjoy engaging in social or sexual relationships or interactions. They are markedly detached from society, introverted, and primarily choose solitary activities or hobbies. They may be indifferent to praise or criticism and appear withdrawn or aloof. Schizoid patients are rarely seen in clinical practice. Patients with cluster A disorders may be difficult to treat because of an intrinsic distrust or suspicion of others. They may express resistance in engaging, but it is important to be clear in explaining management intentions without becoming overly involved in their personal lives. It is also important to remain professional, direct, and empathetic toward them and not to react emotionally to their odd, inappropriate or dramatic behavior.
Antisocial personality disorder (A) is a cluster B disorder characterized by selfishness, impulsivity, promiscuity, callousness, disregard for rules or other people, pervasive deception and lying, lack of remorse, and difficulty learning from prior experiences. Patients are commonly in trouble with the law. Borderline personality disorder (B) is also a cluster B disorder and is characterized by a lack of self-control, violence, aggression, and having unstable relationships (e.g., frequent break ups). Drug abuse and suicide attempts are very common in borderline individuals. Schizoaffective disorder (C) is not a personality disorder, but rather a condition on the spectrum schizophrenia-like disorders. It is characterized by the presence of delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, catatonia or grossly disorganized behavior, along with mood disturbance such as mania or major depression.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 30 year old male is brought to the emergency department by EMS and police with disruptive behavior. EMS reports that he was evicted from his apartment today because he was shouting loudly and behaving violently. He has medical history of schizophrenia. He has no known drug allergies. On examination his vital signs are within the normal limits and he is agitated, unable to focus on commands, is muffling his ears while yelling at “the voices,” and is pacing. What is the most appropriate initial management plan of this patient?
Correct
IM haloperidol
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. In an uncooperative patient unable to follow commands, rapid sedation is indicated. Once the patient is calm, a focused medical assessment can be safely performed.
A. CT head, basic blood work, urine toxicology screen
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. In an uncooperative patient, verbal deescalation and, if necessary, rapid sedation with an antipsychotic may be necessary. Verbal deescalation has failed in this patient, and blood testing and imaging are unlikely to be successful at this time.
C. Sublingual olanzapine
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. While sublingual olanzapine is a great option in a cooperative patient, this patient is not following commands. In an acutely agitated and unncooperative patient without IV access, intramuscular administration is the safest and most effective.
D. IV midazolam
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. In this uncooperative patient where verbal deescalation has failed, rapid sedation is most appropriate. Benzodiazepines would be an option, but starting a peripheral IV would be difficult in this aggressive patient.
Incorrect
IM haloperidol
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. In an uncooperative patient unable to follow commands, rapid sedation is indicated. Once the patient is calm, a focused medical assessment can be safely performed.
A. CT head, basic blood work, urine toxicology screen
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. In an uncooperative patient, verbal deescalation and, if necessary, rapid sedation with an antipsychotic may be necessary. Verbal deescalation has failed in this patient, and blood testing and imaging are unlikely to be successful at this time.
C. Sublingual olanzapine
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. While sublingual olanzapine is a great option in a cooperative patient, this patient is not following commands. In an acutely agitated and unncooperative patient without IV access, intramuscular administration is the safest and most effective.
D. IV midazolam
This presentation is consistent with acute psychosis. The safety of the health care staff and patient are paramount. In this uncooperative patient where verbal deescalation has failed, rapid sedation is most appropriate. Benzodiazepines would be an option, but starting a peripheral IV would be difficult in this aggressive patient.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 23-year-old male presents to the ED by ambulance after being found yelling at cars on a nearby highway. On interview, the patient is disheveled and endorsing beliefs that the staff is trying to poison his water. After threatening the staff, the patient is chemically sedated with haloperidol and lorazepam. Two hours later, the patient appears to be in distress stating that he cannot move his eyes. On exam, both eyes are deviated upwards bilaterally. What is the next most appropriate action?
Correct
Diphenhydramine IM
The patient in the above question is demonstrating signs of an acute dystonic reaction. Acute dystonic reactions can occur at any point during long-term or short-term antipsychotic therapy. They are more common with typical antipsychotics such as haloperidol. Symptoms include involuntary contraction of muscle groups commonly seen in the neck (torticollis), tongue (buccolingual crisis), and eyes (oculogyric crisis). Treatment of acute dystonic reaction includes IM diphenhydramine or IM benztropine. After receiving one of these muscular agents, patient should receive the same medication in oral form for 48-72 hours to prevent recurrence. Source
Pringsheim T, Doja A, Belanger S, Patten S. Treatment recommendations for extrapyramidal side effects associated with second-generation antipsychotic use in children and youth. Paediatr Child Health. 2011;16(9):590-8.
PMC3223903
A. Benztropine PO (incorrect)
Benztropine can also be used to treat dystonic reactions; however, the appropriate route of administration is IM followed by subsequent PO dosing for 48-72 hours
B. Dantrolene IV (incorrect)
Dantrolene would be more appropriate for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Lorazepam IM (incorrect)
Ativan is an agent that can be effectively used to treat mild agitation or akithesia. It is not the appropriate therapy for dystonic reactions
Incorrect
Diphenhydramine IM
The patient in the above question is demonstrating signs of an acute dystonic reaction. Acute dystonic reactions can occur at any point during long-term or short-term antipsychotic therapy. They are more common with typical antipsychotics such as haloperidol. Symptoms include involuntary contraction of muscle groups commonly seen in the neck (torticollis), tongue (buccolingual crisis), and eyes (oculogyric crisis). Treatment of acute dystonic reaction includes IM diphenhydramine or IM benztropine. After receiving one of these muscular agents, patient should receive the same medication in oral form for 48-72 hours to prevent recurrence. Source
Pringsheim T, Doja A, Belanger S, Patten S. Treatment recommendations for extrapyramidal side effects associated with second-generation antipsychotic use in children and youth. Paediatr Child Health. 2011;16(9):590-8.
PMC3223903
A. Benztropine PO (incorrect)
Benztropine can also be used to treat dystonic reactions; however, the appropriate route of administration is IM followed by subsequent PO dosing for 48-72 hours
B. Dantrolene IV (incorrect)
Dantrolene would be more appropriate for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Lorazepam IM (incorrect)
Ativan is an agent that can be effectively used to treat mild agitation or akithesia. It is not the appropriate therapy for dystonic reactions
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A homeless teenage girl presents to the ED and is found to be pregnant. You suspect she is a victim of human trafficking. Which of the following supports your suspicion?
Correct
Certain risk factors have been identified for trafficking. A tattoo that the patient is reluctant to discuss is a potential red flag. Some traffickers brand their victims.
Trafficking should be considered if the individual is traveling with an older companion (B) who is not a guardian. Those trafficked into commercial sex are overly familiar with sexual language and practices (D). Physicians should be suspicious when the accompanying person tries to answer all the questions and insists on being present at all times (C).
Incorrect
Certain risk factors have been identified for trafficking. A tattoo that the patient is reluctant to discuss is a potential red flag. Some traffickers brand their victims.
Trafficking should be considered if the individual is traveling with an older companion (B) who is not a guardian. Those trafficked into commercial sex are overly familiar with sexual language and practices (D). Physicians should be suspicious when the accompanying person tries to answer all the questions and insists on being present at all times (C).
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 33-year old male is brought to the emergency department for altered mental status. Toxicology screen is positive for cocaine. Heart rate is 133, blood pressure is 220/160, respiratory rate is 18, oxygen saturation is 100% on room air, and temperature is 102.4 degrees F (39.1 degrees C). What is the most appropriate initial treatment of this patient?
Correct
Lorazepam
The correct answer is benzodiazepines. For sympathomimetic toxidromes, the most efficacious medicines to reduce blood pressure/tachycardia/hyperthermia are benzos. Beta blockers are contraindicated as they lead to unopposed alpha activity. Phentolamine is a difficult medicine to titrate.
B. Clonidine
This patient likely has a sympathomimetic toxidrome. Treatment of choice is a benzodiazepine, not clonidine.
C. Labetolol
Beta blockers are contraindicated in cocaine toxicity
D. Phentolamine
Rarely used and difficult to titrate
Incorrect
Lorazepam
The correct answer is benzodiazepines. For sympathomimetic toxidromes, the most efficacious medicines to reduce blood pressure/tachycardia/hyperthermia are benzos. Beta blockers are contraindicated as they lead to unopposed alpha activity. Phentolamine is a difficult medicine to titrate.
B. Clonidine
This patient likely has a sympathomimetic toxidrome. Treatment of choice is a benzodiazepine, not clonidine.
C. Labetolol
Beta blockers are contraindicated in cocaine toxicity
D. Phentolamine
Rarely used and difficult to titrate
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 32-year-old man is brought in for evaluation after police found him agitated and violent. It takes multiple staff members to restrain him. On physical examination, rotary nystagmus is noted. Which of the following is the most likely ingestion?
Correct
Phencyclidine (PCP) was initially developed for use as a general anesthetic. However, frequent emergent reactions led to its discontinuation in the therapeutic setting. PCP is well absorbed from any mucous membrane and can also be smoked. The drug affects many receptors and therefore causes a broad spectrum of clinical findings. In most cases, the sympathomimetic effects predominate and patients are agitated, exhibiting both bizarre and violent behavior. Patients may, however, demonstrate catatonic features. Nystagmus is often present and may be horizontal, vertical or rotatory. The patient’s hemodynamic status is most often consistent with a sympathomimetic picture with hypertension, tachycardia and possibly hyperthermia.
Crystal methamphetamine (A) is an amphetamine causing release of presynaptic catecholamines. Most commonly amphetamines are ingested, but can be crushed and injected as well. Patients develop typical sympathomimetic effects. With crystal methamphetamine, patients may also become paranoid with delusions. Its use has also been associated with engaging in high-risk behavior, specifically sexual in the men who have sex with men community. Gamma hydroxybutyrate (GHB) (B) is a popular recreational drug classified as a sedative/hypnotic. When ingested it produces a euphoria that is popular at rave parties. Particularly when mixed with ethanol, GHB has a marked CNS depressive effect often leading to respiratory depression requiring transient intubation. It has also been implicated as a date rape drug due to its sedative and amnestic effects. Lysergic acid diethylamine (LSD) (C) is a potent psychoactive drug taken orally as a tablet, liquid, powder, gelatin square or on a sheet of blotter paper. The medication is a hallucinogen with serotonin-like characteristics. Patients go on a “trip” during which perception between the user and environment are distorted. Patients may have an acute panic reaction after taking LSD.
Incorrect
Phencyclidine (PCP) was initially developed for use as a general anesthetic. However, frequent emergent reactions led to its discontinuation in the therapeutic setting. PCP is well absorbed from any mucous membrane and can also be smoked. The drug affects many receptors and therefore causes a broad spectrum of clinical findings. In most cases, the sympathomimetic effects predominate and patients are agitated, exhibiting both bizarre and violent behavior. Patients may, however, demonstrate catatonic features. Nystagmus is often present and may be horizontal, vertical or rotatory. The patient’s hemodynamic status is most often consistent with a sympathomimetic picture with hypertension, tachycardia and possibly hyperthermia.
Crystal methamphetamine (A) is an amphetamine causing release of presynaptic catecholamines. Most commonly amphetamines are ingested, but can be crushed and injected as well. Patients develop typical sympathomimetic effects. With crystal methamphetamine, patients may also become paranoid with delusions. Its use has also been associated with engaging in high-risk behavior, specifically sexual in the men who have sex with men community. Gamma hydroxybutyrate (GHB) (B) is a popular recreational drug classified as a sedative/hypnotic. When ingested it produces a euphoria that is popular at rave parties. Particularly when mixed with ethanol, GHB has a marked CNS depressive effect often leading to respiratory depression requiring transient intubation. It has also been implicated as a date rape drug due to its sedative and amnestic effects. Lysergic acid diethylamine (LSD) (C) is a potent psychoactive drug taken orally as a tablet, liquid, powder, gelatin square or on a sheet of blotter paper. The medication is a hallucinogen with serotonin-like characteristics. Patients go on a “trip” during which perception between the user and environment are distorted. Patients may have an acute panic reaction after taking LSD.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 17-year-old man is found unresponsive in his bedroom and brought to the emergency department. His parents report that he has been recently weight training and taking large quantities of bodybuilding supplements. Upon arrival, his vital signs are temperature 35.6°C, heart rate 68 beats per minute, blood pressure 100/70 mm Hg, respirations 10 breaths per minute. His pupils are small and minimally responsive to light. He is unresponsive to painful stimuli. Naloxone is administered without improvement. The patient is subsequently intubated for airway protection. About six hours later, the patient rapidly awakes and self-extubates. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient’s symptoms?
Correct
This patient has gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB) intoxication. GHB is an analogue of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. It has been commonly used and abused by bodybuilders because of its anabolic effects. GHB also has euphoric effects, which has caused it to gain popularity as a club drug. Its sedative and amnestic effects have caused GHB to be implicated in cases of drug-facilitated sexual assault (“date rape”). Clinically, GHB overdose can range from euphoria to depressed mental status with or without coma. Vital sign abnormalities such as hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension may be present. U waves can be seen on ECG. Pupils are small and minimally responsive to light. Respiratory depression may occur, but—despite a comatose appearance—most GHB intoxicated patients maintain adequate ventilation. Effects of GHB overdose generally resolve within six to eight hours. The classic presentation of GHB overdose is a comatose patient who requires intubation then has an abrupt awakening. Care for GHB intoxication is largely supportive and includes benzodiazepines for agitation, fluid resuscitation, and keeping the patient in a safe environment.
Midazolam (B) is a short-acting benzodiazepine. Benzodiazepines are generally not found in bodybuilding supplements and rarely cause hypotension or bradycardia when ingested alone. The patient in this scenario has slow respirations, coma, and small pupils but does not respond to naloxone, making opioid intoxication (C) less likely. Opioids are also generally not found in bodybuilding supplements. Phenobarbital (D) is a long-acting barbiturate. Barbiturates can cause significant cardiovascular and central nervous system depression; however, given its long duration of action, it is unlikely that the patient would abruptly regain consciousness after six hours.
Incorrect
This patient has gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB) intoxication. GHB is an analogue of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. It has been commonly used and abused by bodybuilders because of its anabolic effects. GHB also has euphoric effects, which has caused it to gain popularity as a club drug. Its sedative and amnestic effects have caused GHB to be implicated in cases of drug-facilitated sexual assault (“date rape”). Clinically, GHB overdose can range from euphoria to depressed mental status with or without coma. Vital sign abnormalities such as hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension may be present. U waves can be seen on ECG. Pupils are small and minimally responsive to light. Respiratory depression may occur, but—despite a comatose appearance—most GHB intoxicated patients maintain adequate ventilation. Effects of GHB overdose generally resolve within six to eight hours. The classic presentation of GHB overdose is a comatose patient who requires intubation then has an abrupt awakening. Care for GHB intoxication is largely supportive and includes benzodiazepines for agitation, fluid resuscitation, and keeping the patient in a safe environment.
Midazolam (B) is a short-acting benzodiazepine. Benzodiazepines are generally not found in bodybuilding supplements and rarely cause hypotension or bradycardia when ingested alone. The patient in this scenario has slow respirations, coma, and small pupils but does not respond to naloxone, making opioid intoxication (C) less likely. Opioids are also generally not found in bodybuilding supplements. Phenobarbital (D) is a long-acting barbiturate. Barbiturates can cause significant cardiovascular and central nervous system depression; however, given its long duration of action, it is unlikely that the patient would abruptly regain consciousness after six hours.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A five-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after being found unresponsive at home. He was found lying on the floor in his mother’s room with prescription medications scattered all over. His mother called 911, and he was immediately rushed to the hospital by ambulance. On examination, the boy is sedated with a heart rate of 69 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 15 per minute, blood pressure 70/50 mm Hg, pulse oximetry of 99 percent, pupils 1-2 mm reactive to light, and 1+ reflexes on all extremities. Blood sugar is 200 and ECG shows QTc interval prolongation. Which of the following is the most likely medication ingested?
Correct
The boy has signs and symptoms consistent with opioid ingestion. Methadone ingestion can manifest with the classic opioid toxidrome of respiratory depression, sedation, and miosis. Signs of more severe toxicity can include bradycardia, hypotension, and hypothermia. Methadone has been associated with a prolonged QTc interval and risk of torsades de pointes. Patients with significant respiratory or CNS depression should be treated with naloxone, which is a mu receptor antagonist. Because the half-life of methadone is longer than naloxone, patients can require multiple doses of naloxone. Also, serial ECGs are needed to monitor for the development of a prolonged QTc interval. If a patient does develop a prolonged QTc, management includes close cardiac monitoring, repletion of electrolytes, and having magnesium readily available should the patient develop torsades de pointes.
Clonidine (A) toxicity manifests as lethargy, miosis, and bradycardia. Although, findings may be similar to opioid overdose, QTc interval prolongation and torsades de pointes are typically only seen with opioid overdose. Propanolol (C) toxicity causes bradycardia and hypotension that typically develops within six hours of ingestion. Heart block and hypoglycemia may also be seen. Clinical manifestations of salicylate (D) toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and tinnitus. Moderate cases can manifest as tachypnea, tachycardia, and altered mental status.
Incorrect
The boy has signs and symptoms consistent with opioid ingestion. Methadone ingestion can manifest with the classic opioid toxidrome of respiratory depression, sedation, and miosis. Signs of more severe toxicity can include bradycardia, hypotension, and hypothermia. Methadone has been associated with a prolonged QTc interval and risk of torsades de pointes. Patients with significant respiratory or CNS depression should be treated with naloxone, which is a mu receptor antagonist. Because the half-life of methadone is longer than naloxone, patients can require multiple doses of naloxone. Also, serial ECGs are needed to monitor for the development of a prolonged QTc interval. If a patient does develop a prolonged QTc, management includes close cardiac monitoring, repletion of electrolytes, and having magnesium readily available should the patient develop torsades de pointes.
Clonidine (A) toxicity manifests as lethargy, miosis, and bradycardia. Although, findings may be similar to opioid overdose, QTc interval prolongation and torsades de pointes are typically only seen with opioid overdose. Propanolol (C) toxicity causes bradycardia and hypotension that typically develops within six hours of ingestion. Heart block and hypoglycemia may also be seen. Clinical manifestations of salicylate (D) toxicity include nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and tinnitus. Moderate cases can manifest as tachypnea, tachycardia, and altered mental status.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 35-year-old woman with a history of depression presents to the ED with altered mental status. Her medication was changed from fluoxetine to phenelzine two days ago. Upon arrival, her vital signs are temperature 39.5°C, heart rate 110 beats per minute, blood pressure 170/110 mm Hg, and respirations 16 breaths per minute. Her exam is notable for lower extremity myoclonus. What is the most likely etiology of this patient’s symptoms?
Correct
Serotonin syndrome occurs when there is an excess of systemic serotonin, usually due to a combination of medications, in this case fluoxetine and phenelzine. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that has a long half-life and active metabolites. Phenelzine is a monamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that inhibits serotonin breakdown. Because of fluoxetine’s long half-life and the consequent risk of serotonin syndrome, a 6-week washout period is recommended postdiscontinuation before starting an MAOI. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by altered mental status, hyperreflexia, clonus, rigidity, and autonomic instability. Treatment includes removing the offending drugs, cooling measures, benzodiazepines, fluid resuscitation, and cyproheptadine, a serotonin antagonist.
Acute dystonic reactions (A) result from administration of dopaminergic-blocking agents (especially antipsychotics and some antiemetics) and include torticollis, akathisia, and pseudoparkinsonism. Unlike serotonin syndrome, altered mental status and autonomic instability do not occur with acute dystonic reactions. Hypertensive crisis (B) can occur in patients taking MAOIs, usually in the context of eating foods that are high in tyramine; however, altered mental status, hyperthermia, and movement disorders are not as common in this setting. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) (C) occurs in the setting of antipsychotic medication administration. The onset is often more insidious then serotonin syndrome but can be difficult to distinguish because both can present with autonomic instability, hyperthermia, altered consciousness, and movement disorders. NMS is more commonly associated with bradykinesia and lead pipe rigidity. Patients with serotonin syndrome tend to have more agitation and myoclonus/hyperreflexia. A careful medication history can also help to distinguish the etiology.
Incorrect
Serotonin syndrome occurs when there is an excess of systemic serotonin, usually due to a combination of medications, in this case fluoxetine and phenelzine. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that has a long half-life and active metabolites. Phenelzine is a monamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that inhibits serotonin breakdown. Because of fluoxetine’s long half-life and the consequent risk of serotonin syndrome, a 6-week washout period is recommended postdiscontinuation before starting an MAOI. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by altered mental status, hyperreflexia, clonus, rigidity, and autonomic instability. Treatment includes removing the offending drugs, cooling measures, benzodiazepines, fluid resuscitation, and cyproheptadine, a serotonin antagonist.
Acute dystonic reactions (A) result from administration of dopaminergic-blocking agents (especially antipsychotics and some antiemetics) and include torticollis, akathisia, and pseudoparkinsonism. Unlike serotonin syndrome, altered mental status and autonomic instability do not occur with acute dystonic reactions. Hypertensive crisis (B) can occur in patients taking MAOIs, usually in the context of eating foods that are high in tyramine; however, altered mental status, hyperthermia, and movement disorders are not as common in this setting. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) (C) occurs in the setting of antipsychotic medication administration. The onset is often more insidious then serotonin syndrome but can be difficult to distinguish because both can present with autonomic instability, hyperthermia, altered consciousness, and movement disorders. NMS is more commonly associated with bradykinesia and lead pipe rigidity. Patients with serotonin syndrome tend to have more agitation and myoclonus/hyperreflexia. A careful medication history can also help to distinguish the etiology.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 22 year-old woman presents to the emergency department by ambulance due to suspected ingestion. She has a history of depression and is on amitriptyline. She was found unresponsive next to an empty bottle of amitriptyline. She is intubated, tachycardic, hypotensive and an ECG reveals the following QRS prolongation > 100msec. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Correct
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose initially manifests with anticholinergic symptoms such as sinus tachycardia and hypertension and can progress to seizures, coma and cardiovascular collapse. A dose greater than 10 mg/kg or 1000 mg in an adult should be considered life threatening. Severe lactic acidosis impairs myocardial sodium conduction leading to hypotension, dysrhythmias and ultimately cardiac arrest. Changes on ECG include QRS prolongation (greater than 100 msec), PR prolongation and rightward shift of the terminal 40-msec QRS vector. Treatment begins with assessment of airway and breathing. If intubated, hyperventilation will aid in reversing the acidosis. If the QRS is greater than 100 msec and the patient is symptomatic with hypotension or a dysrhythmia, or if the patient is acidemic, then intravenous sodium bicarbonate should be administered. Sodium bicarbonate produces an alkaline pH and provides a sodium load to aid conductance through the myocardial sodium fast channels that are blocked by the TCA. Sodium bicarbonate is administered by IV boluses of 1 to 2 mEq/kg until the QRS narrows or until the pH increases to 7.50-7.55. Once this is achieved, then a continuous infusion can be maintained by adding three ampules of 8.4% sodium bicarbonate (50 mEq/ampule) to one liter of 5% dextrose in water. The initial infusion rate mirrors that of the patient’s usual maintenance rate of intravenous fluids and should be maintained for 4 to 6 hours.
Hypertonic sodium chloride (A) is considered treatment of hypotension, acidemia and widened QRS interval that is refractory to treatment with sodium bicarbonate and fluid resuscitation. Intralipid (B) may be considered for refractory hypotension due lipophilic drug overdose, including TCA overdose, but is not first line. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine (C) or dopamine, may be considered in persistently unstable patients after sodium bicarbonate therapy is maximized or no longer being tolerated.
Incorrect
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose initially manifests with anticholinergic symptoms such as sinus tachycardia and hypertension and can progress to seizures, coma and cardiovascular collapse. A dose greater than 10 mg/kg or 1000 mg in an adult should be considered life threatening. Severe lactic acidosis impairs myocardial sodium conduction leading to hypotension, dysrhythmias and ultimately cardiac arrest. Changes on ECG include QRS prolongation (greater than 100 msec), PR prolongation and rightward shift of the terminal 40-msec QRS vector. Treatment begins with assessment of airway and breathing. If intubated, hyperventilation will aid in reversing the acidosis. If the QRS is greater than 100 msec and the patient is symptomatic with hypotension or a dysrhythmia, or if the patient is acidemic, then intravenous sodium bicarbonate should be administered. Sodium bicarbonate produces an alkaline pH and provides a sodium load to aid conductance through the myocardial sodium fast channels that are blocked by the TCA. Sodium bicarbonate is administered by IV boluses of 1 to 2 mEq/kg until the QRS narrows or until the pH increases to 7.50-7.55. Once this is achieved, then a continuous infusion can be maintained by adding three ampules of 8.4% sodium bicarbonate (50 mEq/ampule) to one liter of 5% dextrose in water. The initial infusion rate mirrors that of the patient’s usual maintenance rate of intravenous fluids and should be maintained for 4 to 6 hours.
Hypertonic sodium chloride (A) is considered treatment of hypotension, acidemia and widened QRS interval that is refractory to treatment with sodium bicarbonate and fluid resuscitation. Intralipid (B) may be considered for refractory hypotension due lipophilic drug overdose, including TCA overdose, but is not first line. Vasopressors, such as norepinephrine (C) or dopamine, may be considered in persistently unstable patients after sodium bicarbonate therapy is maximized or no longer being tolerated.
Welcome back everybody! This week we will be covering substance abuse and their psychiatric manifestations, so it’s time to get down with the DTs, brush off those bugs crawling on your skin, wave hello to that friendly pink elephant in the corner, and remember the answer is ALWAYS benzos. FLIP will be hosted this week by Drs. Koripella and Wilson. There are a lot of small topics to cover, we will focus on ETOH/withdrawal, stimulants, hallucinogens, opioids, and antichol/cholinergics, so choose one source and do your best to hit the highlights. We have recruited the tox. folk to help out with the stations so bring your A game!