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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 45-year-old man, with a long history of alcohol abuse, presents to the ED complaining of fever and cough for 3 days. Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of pneumonia in this population?
Correct
The most common infection seen in alcoholism is pneumonia. Associated risk factors for pneumonia include smoking, decreased ciliary function, decreased surfactant production, decreased cough reflex, malnutrition, and poor oral hygiene. Although alcoholic patients may contract a variety of bacterial pneumonias, Streptococcus pneumoniaeis still the most common organism.
Incorrect
The most common infection seen in alcoholism is pneumonia. Associated risk factors for pneumonia include smoking, decreased ciliary function, decreased surfactant production, decreased cough reflex, malnutrition, and poor oral hygiene. Although alcoholic patients may contract a variety of bacterial pneumonias, Streptococcus pneumoniaeis still the most common organism.
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Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 42-year-old woman who spent two days hospitalized after she underwent an appendectomy three weeks ago presents with cough, green sputum and fever. Her vitals are T 100.7°F, HR 94, BP 123/76, RR 18, and oxygen saturation 97%. She is well appearing and her blood work (CBC and BMP) is unremarkable. A chest X-ray shows a left lower lobe infiltrate. Which of the following represents the best management for this patient?
Correct
This patient has a health-care associated pneumonia (HCAP) requiring IV antibiotics and admission. HCAP is defined as infection occurring within 90 days of a 2-day or longer hospitalization; in a nursing home or long-term care residence; within 30 days of receiving intravenous antibacterial therapy, chemotherapy, or wound care or after a hospital or hemodialysis clinic visit. HCAP requires IV broad spectrum antibiotics because it may involve both the typical pathogens involved in community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) (Mycoplasma pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae,Streptococcus pneumoniae and Chlamydia pneumoniae) as well as more resistant organisms (Acinetobacter species, Pseudomonas species, Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA) Enterobacter species, Escherichia coli, Proteus species, Klebsiella species etc.). Treatment should be as follows (one antibiotic from each category):
Incorrect
This patient has a health-care associated pneumonia (HCAP) requiring IV antibiotics and admission. HCAP is defined as infection occurring within 90 days of a 2-day or longer hospitalization; in a nursing home or long-term care residence; within 30 days of receiving intravenous antibacterial therapy, chemotherapy, or wound care or after a hospital or hemodialysis clinic visit. HCAP requires IV broad spectrum antibiotics because it may involve both the typical pathogens involved in community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) (Mycoplasma pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae,Streptococcus pneumoniae and Chlamydia pneumoniae) as well as more resistant organisms (Acinetobacter species, Pseudomonas species, Staphylococcus aureus (including MRSA) Enterobacter species, Escherichia coli, Proteus species, Klebsiella species etc.). Treatment should be as follows (one antibiotic from each category):
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Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Which of the following is true regarding active tuberculosis?
Correct
Most patients evaluated for tuberculosis present with reactivation of an old infection. When an immunocompetent person is exposed to tuberculosis, the immune system effectively gains control over the infection in the lung. It remains quiet and often never re-activates during a person’s lifetime. Most patients are asymptomatic during primary infection and only develop symptoms during a re-activation. Approximately 8-10% of persons who do not take chemoprophylaxis after a primary infection (typically identified through a positive skin PPD test) will develop active tuberculosis. Cough is the most common symptom of pulmonary tuberculosis. Additionally, patients may develop fever (more common in the afternoon or evening), night sweats and hemoptysis. Due to the effects of cytokines (particularly tumor necrosis factor alpha), patient often lose weight. The classic X-ray finding on chest radiograph is a cavitary lesion in the upper lobe of the lung. However, tuberculosis can cause any abnormality on the X-ray including infiltrate in any portion of the lung. Lymphadenopathy is commonly seen in the hilum on X-ray.
Incorrect
Most patients evaluated for tuberculosis present with reactivation of an old infection. When an immunocompetent person is exposed to tuberculosis, the immune system effectively gains control over the infection in the lung. It remains quiet and often never re-activates during a person’s lifetime. Most patients are asymptomatic during primary infection and only develop symptoms during a re-activation. Approximately 8-10% of persons who do not take chemoprophylaxis after a primary infection (typically identified through a positive skin PPD test) will develop active tuberculosis. Cough is the most common symptom of pulmonary tuberculosis. Additionally, patients may develop fever (more common in the afternoon or evening), night sweats and hemoptysis. Due to the effects of cytokines (particularly tumor necrosis factor alpha), patient often lose weight. The classic X-ray finding on chest radiograph is a cavitary lesion in the upper lobe of the lung. However, tuberculosis can cause any abnormality on the X-ray including infiltrate in any portion of the lung. Lymphadenopathy is commonly seen in the hilum on X-ray.
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Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 33-year-old man presents to the ED with several weeks of cough, pleuritic chest pain, weight loss, and night sweats. The patient drinks a 6-pack of beer daily. Vital signs are BP 145/75, HR 88, RR 18, and T 37.7°C. Pulmonary exam reveals crackles and decreased breath sounds on auscultation. You obtain the radiograph seen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Patients with lung abscess classically present with several weeks of cough, fever, pleuritic chest pain, weight loss, and night sweats. There may be cough productive of putrid sputum. Because the progression of lung abscess is indolent, tachycardia, tachypnea, or fever may be absent. The chest radiograph often shows an area of dense consolidation with an air-fluid level inside a thick-walled cavitary lesion. Those who abuse alcohol or have other conditions associated with the potential for aspiration are at greatest risk for lung abscess development.
Incorrect
Patients with lung abscess classically present with several weeks of cough, fever, pleuritic chest pain, weight loss, and night sweats. There may be cough productive of putrid sputum. Because the progression of lung abscess is indolent, tachycardia, tachypnea, or fever may be absent. The chest radiograph often shows an area of dense consolidation with an air-fluid level inside a thick-walled cavitary lesion. Those who abuse alcohol or have other conditions associated with the potential for aspiration are at greatest risk for lung abscess development.
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Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Which of the following HIV-positive patients suspected of having Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) should receive prednisone before treatment with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole?
Correct
Corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy in HIV-positive patients with severe PCP (now known as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia), defined by a room air arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO2) of less than 70 mm Hg or analveolar-arterial oxygen gradient that exceeds 35 mm Hg. When administered, steroids should be given before trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or pentamidine because microbial degradation and clearance caused by antibiotics may trigger a severe inflammatory response. Corticosteroid therapy can blunt this inflammatory response, improve oxygenation, and reduce the incidence of respiratory failure.
Incorrect
Corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy in HIV-positive patients with severe PCP (now known as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia), defined by a room air arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO2) of less than 70 mm Hg or analveolar-arterial oxygen gradient that exceeds 35 mm Hg. When administered, steroids should be given before trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole or pentamidine because microbial degradation and clearance caused by antibiotics may trigger a severe inflammatory response. Corticosteroid therapy can blunt this inflammatory response, improve oxygenation, and reduce the incidence of respiratory failure.
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Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 68-year-old male with a history of esophageal cancer presents with progressive fever, chest pain, and shortness of breath over 24 hours. Chest radiography demonstrates a possible left lower lobe pneumonia and large left pleural effusion. Pleural fluid analysis reveals pH 6. 95, glucose 47 mg/dL, 11,500 white blood cells (WBCs)/mm3 (82% neutrophils), and a protein level 75% of plasma levels. What are the indicated maneuvers?
Correct
This is an exudative pleural effusion as defined by Light’s criteria (see Box 77-3). A pH less than 7. 0 suggests emphysema or esophageal rupture. This patient is at risk for both; hence the need to assess esophageal integrity. A pH less than 7. 0 with glucose less than 50 mg/dL are indications for tube thoracostomy. Normal pleural fluid has a WBC count of less than 1000/mm3.
Incorrect
This is an exudative pleural effusion as defined by Light’s criteria (see Box 77-3). A pH less than 7. 0 suggests emphysema or esophageal rupture. This patient is at risk for both; hence the need to assess esophageal integrity. A pH less than 7. 0 with glucose less than 50 mg/dL are indications for tube thoracostomy. Normal pleural fluid has a WBC count of less than 1000/mm3.
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Question 7 of 10
7. Question
What is the sensitivity of venous duplex ultrasonography for detection of proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the leg?
Correct
The sensitivity of a single scan is 95%. Thus, 5% are missed.
Incorrect
The sensitivity of a single scan is 95%. Thus, 5% are missed.
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Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 29-year-old woman presents with onset of left calf pain and mild swelling during a 24-hour period. She is 26 weeks’ pregnant with no other medical problems and no other symptoms. Her D-dimer level is 845 ng/mL. Lower extremity duplex ultrasonography is negative. Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action?
Correct
In moderate- to high-risk patients with an elevated D-dimer level, a single ultrasound examination may be insufficient. A repeated study in 2 to 7 days is often sufficient to confirm the diagnosis. The lack of pulmonary symptoms precludes the need for lung and embolus evaluation at this time. During pregnancy, there is a progressive rise in baseline D-dimer concentration; thus, a “normal” value is useful, but an elevated level is of no discriminatory value.
Incorrect
In moderate- to high-risk patients with an elevated D-dimer level, a single ultrasound examination may be insufficient. A repeated study in 2 to 7 days is often sufficient to confirm the diagnosis. The lack of pulmonary symptoms precludes the need for lung and embolus evaluation at this time. During pregnancy, there is a progressive rise in baseline D-dimer concentration; thus, a “normal” value is useful, but an elevated level is of no discriminatory value.
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Question 9 of 10
9. Question
What percentage of patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolus have no apparent clinical risk factor for venous thromboembolism at the time of diagnosis?
Correct
Whereas risk factors increase the chance for a disease, many patients without known risk factors are also at risk, and being “healthy” does not rule out the possibility of venous thromboembolism. Risk factors are best applied to population analysis and are of limited use in evaluating a single patient.
Incorrect
Whereas risk factors increase the chance for a disease, many patients without known risk factors are also at risk, and being “healthy” does not rule out the possibility of venous thromboembolism. Risk factors are best applied to population analysis and are of limited use in evaluating a single patient.
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Question 10 of 10
10. Question
55 year old with PMH significant for hypertension presents with shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. ECG shows sinus tachycardia. CT chest is shown below. Patient given 2L fluid bolus of Normal Saline and repeat vital signs are; BP 90/50, HR 110, RR 20 oxygenating 97% on 4L NC. What is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Correct
The patient has a PE and hypotension even after a 2L fluid bolus. The CT shows a large mainstem thrombus. Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in a patient with a confirmed PE and systolic BP <100 systolic with no contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy has been shown to improve the hemodynamic profile in patients with hemodynamic instability. Heparin should be held when thrombolytics are being infused. Embolectomy can be life saving in patients with hemodynamic instability. Depending on where you work this may be done by thoracic surgery or interventional cardiology. Given the patient is already hypotensive further risk stratification with formal echo and troponin is unnecessary. Bedside ultrasound may be performed but should not hold up therapeutic interventions.
Incorrect
The patient has a PE and hypotension even after a 2L fluid bolus. The CT shows a large mainstem thrombus. Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in a patient with a confirmed PE and systolic BP <100 systolic with no contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy has been shown to improve the hemodynamic profile in patients with hemodynamic instability. Heparin should be held when thrombolytics are being infused. Embolectomy can be life saving in patients with hemodynamic instability. Depending on where you work this may be done by thoracic surgery or interventional cardiology. Given the patient is already hypotensive further risk stratification with formal echo and troponin is unnecessary. Bedside ultrasound may be performed but should not hold up therapeutic interventions.
We continue to FLIP this week with Drs. Bajkowski, Bedford, and Dikeman. We will be covering pneumonia, TB, pleural diseases, and PEs with a mix of stations and procedures! Be sure to watch or read about how to do a thoracentesis so that you can get the most out of Dr. Dikeman’s station.
Interested in a diagram on PEs for pregnant and non-pregnant patients? Here you go.
EMDocs on a TB case
Pediatric Chest Tubes/Pigtails and Pleural Disease
Radiopedia has a good review of CXR and CTs of pneumoconiosis.
EBMedicine’s Community Acquired Pneumonia and their CAP Recap
Sonosite US guided thoracentesis
Sonosite Byte Cases
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 74 Pneumonia
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 75 Pleural Effusion
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 79 Pulmonary Embolus
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 80 Hemoptysis
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 188 Tuberculosis
Harwood and Nuss Chapter 265 Pneumonia (pediatric)
OR
Rosen’s Chapter 76 Pneumonia and corresponding Crackcast
Rosen’s Chapter 77 Pleural Disease and corresponding Crackcast
Rosen’s Chaprer 135 Tuberculosis and corresponding Crackcast