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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
17-year-old student presents with unilateral hearing impairment. Weber and Rhinne testing of this afebrile patient supports conductive hearing loss of the left ear. Otoscopic examination reveals a waxy-appearing polyp situated behind a normal appearing tympanic membrane. There is no purulent discharge or tympanic perforation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Cholesteatoma is a mass of keratinized squamous epithelium that occurs in the middle ear or mastoid process occurring most frequently in teenagers. This ear-related metaplasia is not associated with cholesterol or gallbladder problems, as the name suggests. There are two types of cholesteatoma. The congenital type is less common and occurs medial to the tympanic membrane. The acquired type is more common and grows from the tympanic membrane. Conductive hearing impairment prevails, with imbalance and facial weakness being the most common associated symptoms. Examination may reveal inflammation, retrotympanic waxy appearing polyps or white-pasty discharge from the tympanic membrane. As such, this can easily be confused with chronic, suppurative otitis media. Microscopic excision surgery is required to prevent complications and to maintain or improve hearing.
Acoustic neuromas (A) present with sensorineural, not conductive, hearing impairment. Furthermore, these masses occur in the inner ear and temporal bone on the vestibular nerve and would not likely be viewable during an otoscopic examination. Otitis media (C) presents with otalgia, hearing loss, fever and tympanic membrane abnormalities like erythema, bulging, or cloudiness. Although retrotympanic masses can result from chronic suppurative middle ear infections, current infection is unlikely in the above patient. Squamous cell carcinoma (D) is an epithelial cell malignancy that typically occurs on the external, not middle, ear due to prolonged sun exposure. It has an ulcerated, erythematous appearance with or without bleeding.
Incorrect
Cholesteatoma is a mass of keratinized squamous epithelium that occurs in the middle ear or mastoid process occurring most frequently in teenagers. This ear-related metaplasia is not associated with cholesterol or gallbladder problems, as the name suggests. There are two types of cholesteatoma. The congenital type is less common and occurs medial to the tympanic membrane. The acquired type is more common and grows from the tympanic membrane. Conductive hearing impairment prevails, with imbalance and facial weakness being the most common associated symptoms. Examination may reveal inflammation, retrotympanic waxy appearing polyps or white-pasty discharge from the tympanic membrane. As such, this can easily be confused with chronic, suppurative otitis media. Microscopic excision surgery is required to prevent complications and to maintain or improve hearing.
Acoustic neuromas (A) present with sensorineural, not conductive, hearing impairment. Furthermore, these masses occur in the inner ear and temporal bone on the vestibular nerve and would not likely be viewable during an otoscopic examination. Otitis media (C) presents with otalgia, hearing loss, fever and tympanic membrane abnormalities like erythema, bulging, or cloudiness. Although retrotympanic masses can result from chronic suppurative middle ear infections, current infection is unlikely in the above patient. Squamous cell carcinoma (D) is an epithelial cell malignancy that typically occurs on the external, not middle, ear due to prolonged sun exposure. It has an ulcerated, erythematous appearance with or without bleeding.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
An 18 year old male patient presents with sore throat, tonsillar exudates, posterior auricular lymphadenopathy, cough, but is afebrile. What is the patient’s Centor Criteria score and would you treat with antibiotics?
Correct
The patient’s Centor Score is 1 as the patient has tonsillar exudates.
Centor criteria are as follows (each 1 point, for a total of 4 points): Temp >100.4F (38.0C); Absence of cough; Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy; Tonsillar exudates.
The modified Centor criteria factor in age: Age <15 years adds one point; Age >44 years subtracts one point.
0-1 points: no antibiotic or throat culture needed (risk of strep infection <10%)
2-3 points: obtain throat culture and treat if culture positive (risk of strep infection 15% for 2 points, 32% for 3 points)
4-5 points: empirically administer antibiotics (risk of strep infection 56%).
In adults, presence of all 4 original criteria = 40-60% positive predictive value, while absence of all 4 original criteria = 80% negative predictive value.
Incorrect
The patient’s Centor Score is 1 as the patient has tonsillar exudates.
Centor criteria are as follows (each 1 point, for a total of 4 points): Temp >100.4F (38.0C); Absence of cough; Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy; Tonsillar exudates.
The modified Centor criteria factor in age: Age <15 years adds one point; Age >44 years subtracts one point.
0-1 points: no antibiotic or throat culture needed (risk of strep infection <10%)
2-3 points: obtain throat culture and treat if culture positive (risk of strep infection 15% for 2 points, 32% for 3 points)
4-5 points: empirically administer antibiotics (risk of strep infection 56%).
In adults, presence of all 4 original criteria = 40-60% positive predictive value, while absence of all 4 original criteria = 80% negative predictive value.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 32-year-old man presents with fever and sore throat for two days. Vital signs are HR 133, BP 110/70, T 103.2°F. Examination reveals an ill-appearing man who is sitting up with his neck extended forward. There is audible stridor on examination. You are unable to visualize the posterior pharynx as he is unable to fully open his mouth. What management is indicated?
Correct
This patient presents with signs and symptoms concerning for a deep space infection of the neck and should have fiberoptic nasopharyngoscopy performed by a trained clinician. Deep space infections of the lower face and neck include peritnosillar abscess, Ludwig’s angina, retropharyngeal and parapharyngeal abscess. Patients with these disorders can decompensate rapidly and thus, rapid diagnosis and appropriate management is vital. Patients will often present with fever and sore throat and will be ill-appearing. Because these abscesses can compromise the airway, patients may exhibit signs of respiratory compromise including stridor and tachypnea. Trismus may be present if the infection irritates the TMJ and muscles of mastication. Airway distortion is common and intubation should not be taken lightly. The safest approach is typically awake intubation with fiberoptics. Fiberoptic nasopharyngoscopy can be beneficial for diagnosis, visualization of the airway anatomy and for intubation.
Incorrect
This patient presents with signs and symptoms concerning for a deep space infection of the neck and should have fiberoptic nasopharyngoscopy performed by a trained clinician. Deep space infections of the lower face and neck include peritnosillar abscess, Ludwig’s angina, retropharyngeal and parapharyngeal abscess. Patients with these disorders can decompensate rapidly and thus, rapid diagnosis and appropriate management is vital. Patients will often present with fever and sore throat and will be ill-appearing. Because these abscesses can compromise the airway, patients may exhibit signs of respiratory compromise including stridor and tachypnea. Trismus may be present if the infection irritates the TMJ and muscles of mastication. Airway distortion is common and intubation should not be taken lightly. The safest approach is typically awake intubation with fiberoptics. Fiberoptic nasopharyngoscopy can be beneficial for diagnosis, visualization of the airway anatomy and for intubation.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 19-year-old woman presents with pain in her mouth. She underwent an extraction of an impacted molar 3 days prior to the onset of her pain. The pain began acutely today after the surgical pain subsided the day after the procedure. Which of the following is the recommended treatment?
Correct
This patient is suffering from dry socket, also known as acute alveolar osteitis. Patients undergo dental extraction and after the procedure a hemostatic blood clot forms in the socket. Pain is common for 24 hours post-procedure and then improves. When the healing blood clot is lost from the socket, the patient develops acute severe pain. Most commonly, it occurs 3-4 days after the extraction and is associated with a foul odor. Pain is related to inflammation and a localized infection of the bone. Treatment includes packing the open socket with iodoform gauze. The gauze is saturated with either a medicated dental paste or eugenol (oil of cloves). Patients will require analgesia and may benefit from a nerve block.
Incorrect
This patient is suffering from dry socket, also known as acute alveolar osteitis. Patients undergo dental extraction and after the procedure a hemostatic blood clot forms in the socket. Pain is common for 24 hours post-procedure and then improves. When the healing blood clot is lost from the socket, the patient develops acute severe pain. Most commonly, it occurs 3-4 days after the extraction and is associated with a foul odor. Pain is related to inflammation and a localized infection of the bone. Treatment includes packing the open socket with iodoform gauze. The gauze is saturated with either a medicated dental paste or eugenol (oil of cloves). Patients will require analgesia and may benefit from a nerve block.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 42-year-old woman complains of two days of pain and swelling in the right submandibular area. She complains of dry mouth and worsening of the swelling and pain during mealtime. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for this condition?
Correct
This patient has obstructive sialoadenitis, which occurs from outflow obstruction by a stone or calculus in the salivary gland or duct. The submandibular location is most commonly involved because it is has more viscous secretions and runs an uphill course. Patients with sialolithiasis note xerostomia (dry mouth) along with increasing swelling and pain during mealtime. Most salivary stones pass spontaneously. To aid in passage, patients should be started on sialogogues (e.g., sour lozenges), which stimulate salivary secretions and help expel the stone. Palpable stones may also be “milked” from the duct, if they are distal enough, by gentle stroking in a posterior to anterior direction.
Antihistamines (A) can worsen this condition by decreasing saliva production and are contraindicated. If the sialoadenitis does not resolve with conservative therapy, dilation and incision (B) of the salivary duct is required to remove the stone. Oral antibiotics (C) are not required in simple obstructive sialoadenitis. However, when suppurative sialoadenitis is present, oral antibiotics with staphylococcal coverage are recommended.
Incorrect
This patient has obstructive sialoadenitis, which occurs from outflow obstruction by a stone or calculus in the salivary gland or duct. The submandibular location is most commonly involved because it is has more viscous secretions and runs an uphill course. Patients with sialolithiasis note xerostomia (dry mouth) along with increasing swelling and pain during mealtime. Most salivary stones pass spontaneously. To aid in passage, patients should be started on sialogogues (e.g., sour lozenges), which stimulate salivary secretions and help expel the stone. Palpable stones may also be “milked” from the duct, if they are distal enough, by gentle stroking in a posterior to anterior direction.
Antihistamines (A) can worsen this condition by decreasing saliva production and are contraindicated. If the sialoadenitis does not resolve with conservative therapy, dilation and incision (B) of the salivary duct is required to remove the stone. Oral antibiotics (C) are not required in simple obstructive sialoadenitis. However, when suppurative sialoadenitis is present, oral antibiotics with staphylococcal coverage are recommended.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 21-year-old man presents to the ED with sore throat, muffled voice, and difficulty opening his mouth. On physical exam, you note the above. What structure must be avoided in the treatment of this disease process?
Correct
This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of a peritonsillar abscess (PTA). These abscesses are typically polymicrobial in etiology. Signs and symptoms of a PTA include fever, trismus, hot potato or muffled voice, and contralateral uvular deviation. Management of a PTA is by needle aspiration or incision and drainage, and antibiotics. In order to avoid the internal carotid artery, which sits behind the peritonsillar fossa, a needle sheath should be used to control puncture depth. Aspiration should be undertaken in the soft palate at the point of maximal abscess fluctuance. Medial and superior aspiration are safer from the standpoint of avoiding injury to the carotid artery. Penicillin VK, amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, or clindamycin may be used for antibiotics. Complications of a PTA include airway obstruction, aspiration, deep space or intracranial extension, or inadvertent carotid artery injury during drainage.
The internal jugular vein (B) lies lateral to the area posterior to the peritonsillar abscess. The peritonsillar abscess typically lies superior to the tonsillar pillar (C). The vagus nerve (D) lies significantly more posterior to the peritonsillar abscess than would be reached by the needle or scalpel in draining the abscess.
Incorrect
This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of a peritonsillar abscess (PTA). These abscesses are typically polymicrobial in etiology. Signs and symptoms of a PTA include fever, trismus, hot potato or muffled voice, and contralateral uvular deviation. Management of a PTA is by needle aspiration or incision and drainage, and antibiotics. In order to avoid the internal carotid artery, which sits behind the peritonsillar fossa, a needle sheath should be used to control puncture depth. Aspiration should be undertaken in the soft palate at the point of maximal abscess fluctuance. Medial and superior aspiration are safer from the standpoint of avoiding injury to the carotid artery. Penicillin VK, amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, or clindamycin may be used for antibiotics. Complications of a PTA include airway obstruction, aspiration, deep space or intracranial extension, or inadvertent carotid artery injury during drainage.
The internal jugular vein (B) lies lateral to the area posterior to the peritonsillar abscess. The peritonsillar abscess typically lies superior to the tonsillar pillar (C). The vagus nerve (D) lies significantly more posterior to the peritonsillar abscess than would be reached by the needle or scalpel in draining the abscess.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A mother calls the ED because her 14-year-old son sustained a right upper central incisor tooth avulsion approximately five minutes ago. According to Mom, the tooth is intact with the periodontal ligament still present. She is en route to the ED and would like to know how to transport the avulsed tooth. Which of the following media is most appropriate?
Correct
Avulsed permanent teeth are true dental emergencies. The majority of patients with an avulsed tooth will lose the tooth, so the expectations of patients should be managed accordingly. Time is an important consideration with dental avulsion. Periodontal ligament cells generally die after 60 minutes outside the oral cavity if not replanted or placed in the proper transport media. The ideal transport media is Hank’s solution, but this is not usually available in most homes. Therefore, milk is an alternative and has a compatible osmolality to tooth root cells. However, like normal saline, it lacks the necessary metabolites and glucose to maintain normal cell metabolism of the tooth root cells. The cells on the avulsed periodontal ligament in milk do not die immediately, and is the best alternative to Hank’s solution. Patients should be reminded to avoid touching the periodontal ligament and hold the tooth by the crown. In the ED, temporary replantation should be performed. The tooth should be gently rinsed (not wiped) with care not to traumatize the periodontal ligament cells. The dental socket should be carefully rinsed and suctioned to remove any debris or clot. The tooth can be replanted gently into the socket and then splinted with periodontal dressing material. Dental follow-up should be arranged for the following day.
Hydrogen peroxide (A) is not an appropriate transport solution because it will damage the periodontal ligament cells. Normal saline (C) has a fairly compatible osmolality and will not cause cellular swelling, but it lacks the metabolites and glucose necessary for maintenance of normal cell metabolism. The different pH and osmolality of water (D) has been shown to damage the periodontal root cells.
Incorrect
Avulsed permanent teeth are true dental emergencies. The majority of patients with an avulsed tooth will lose the tooth, so the expectations of patients should be managed accordingly. Time is an important consideration with dental avulsion. Periodontal ligament cells generally die after 60 minutes outside the oral cavity if not replanted or placed in the proper transport media. The ideal transport media is Hank’s solution, but this is not usually available in most homes. Therefore, milk is an alternative and has a compatible osmolality to tooth root cells. However, like normal saline, it lacks the necessary metabolites and glucose to maintain normal cell metabolism of the tooth root cells. The cells on the avulsed periodontal ligament in milk do not die immediately, and is the best alternative to Hank’s solution. Patients should be reminded to avoid touching the periodontal ligament and hold the tooth by the crown. In the ED, temporary replantation should be performed. The tooth should be gently rinsed (not wiped) with care not to traumatize the periodontal ligament cells. The dental socket should be carefully rinsed and suctioned to remove any debris or clot. The tooth can be replanted gently into the socket and then splinted with periodontal dressing material. Dental follow-up should be arranged for the following day.
Hydrogen peroxide (A) is not an appropriate transport solution because it will damage the periodontal ligament cells. Normal saline (C) has a fairly compatible osmolality and will not cause cellular swelling, but it lacks the metabolites and glucose necessary for maintenance of normal cell metabolism. The different pH and osmolality of water (D) has been shown to damage the periodontal root cells.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A mother brings her 2-year-old boy to the ED because she thinks he swallowed a coin. She found her son coughing initially, but later he seemed fine. On exam, you note the patient is drooling but is in no respiratory distress. You obtain the radiograph seen above. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this patient’s diagnosis?
Correct
The coin is in the esophagus and will need to be removed endoscopically. Flat objects (coins) will be oriented in the coronal plane if it is located in the esophagus. An AP or PA radiograph will reveal the flat surface of the coin (as seen in the above radiograph). If it is in the trachea, the coin will be oriented in the sagittal plane (reflecting the angle of the coin required to pass through the vocal cords). The AP or PA radiograph will reveal the coin on edge. The esophageal epithelium can rapidly necrose and perforate with a lodged foreign body; therefore, endoscopy is necessary to remove a foreign body. The patient also is noted to be drooling, which is indicative of partial or complete obstruction.
The patient exhibits signs (drooling) of partial or complete obstruction, thus, intervention rather than observation is necessary. Most foreign bodies tend to lodge at sites where esophageal narrowing occurs. This occurs at the level of the cricopharyngeus muscle (C6) in kids < 4 years old. Once lodged, it is uncommon for the foreign body to pass. Lodged esophageal foreign bodies can cause esophageal necrosis and lead to perforation. Objects lodged in the esophagus that are causing obstruction (A) should be removed emergently. Tracheal foreign bodies (C and D) are oriented in the sagittal plane and appear round on the lateral view, not the AP view, as seen in the above radiograph. All tracheal foreign bodies need emergent removal in the operating room under anesthesia by laryngoscopy or bronchoscopy. Most patients will also exhibit some form of respiratory distress with a tracheal foreign body.
Incorrect
The coin is in the esophagus and will need to be removed endoscopically. Flat objects (coins) will be oriented in the coronal plane if it is located in the esophagus. An AP or PA radiograph will reveal the flat surface of the coin (as seen in the above radiograph). If it is in the trachea, the coin will be oriented in the sagittal plane (reflecting the angle of the coin required to pass through the vocal cords). The AP or PA radiograph will reveal the coin on edge. The esophageal epithelium can rapidly necrose and perforate with a lodged foreign body; therefore, endoscopy is necessary to remove a foreign body. The patient also is noted to be drooling, which is indicative of partial or complete obstruction.
The patient exhibits signs (drooling) of partial or complete obstruction, thus, intervention rather than observation is necessary. Most foreign bodies tend to lodge at sites where esophageal narrowing occurs. This occurs at the level of the cricopharyngeus muscle (C6) in kids < 4 years old. Once lodged, it is uncommon for the foreign body to pass. Lodged esophageal foreign bodies can cause esophageal necrosis and lead to perforation. Objects lodged in the esophagus that are causing obstruction (A) should be removed emergently. Tracheal foreign bodies (C and D) are oriented in the sagittal plane and appear round on the lateral view, not the AP view, as seen in the above radiograph. All tracheal foreign bodies need emergent removal in the operating room under anesthesia by laryngoscopy or bronchoscopy. Most patients will also exhibit some form of respiratory distress with a tracheal foreign body.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A previously healthy 18-year-old woman presents with sore throat and pain with swallowing. Her vital signs are T 102.7°F, HR 124, BP 123/76, RR 22, and oxygen saturation 97%. On examination she has trismus, pain with neck extension, and difficulty swallowing her saliva. Her oropharyngeal examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
This patient is suffering from a retropharyngeal abscess and will need advanced imaging (CT scan of the neck with IV contrast) to further delineate the extent of the disorder along with emergent ENT consultation for possible operative intervention. Historically, this was a disease of children under 6 years of age but adults are increasingly affected. A number of infectious processes including nasopharyngitis, otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, dental infections as well as iatrogenic procedures including endoscopy and dental instrumentation have been associated with retropharyngeal abscess formation. The infection is most commonly polymicrobial with both aerobes and anaerobes requiring broad antibiotic coverage. Patients typically present with sore throat, odynophagia, dysphagia, drooling, muffled voice, neck stiffness, fever and trismus. In severe cases, the patient may hold the neck in extension in order to increase airway diameter by distracting the posterior pharynx from the airway. CT scan and MRI are diagnostic but in unstable patients, lateral neck X-ray can demonstrate retropharyngeal swelling supporting the diagnosis. Additionally, if the patient is unable to lie flat for advanced imaging, direct visualization with an upper airway scope can be diagnostic.
Oral antibiotics (C) alone are insufficient for treatment of retropharyngeal abscess in the majority of cases. In addition, the patient should not be discharged home as she is at risk to develop a compromised airway. Ibuprofen, dexamethasone, and a Rapid strep test (B) is the standard treatment for simple pharyngitis. However, this patient has a deep space infection and requires imaging, intravenous antibiotics, ENT consultation and possible surgery. In this patient, there is no swelling of the tonsils to suggest a peritonsillar abscess (D) as the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Incorrect
This patient is suffering from a retropharyngeal abscess and will need advanced imaging (CT scan of the neck with IV contrast) to further delineate the extent of the disorder along with emergent ENT consultation for possible operative intervention. Historically, this was a disease of children under 6 years of age but adults are increasingly affected. A number of infectious processes including nasopharyngitis, otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, dental infections as well as iatrogenic procedures including endoscopy and dental instrumentation have been associated with retropharyngeal abscess formation. The infection is most commonly polymicrobial with both aerobes and anaerobes requiring broad antibiotic coverage. Patients typically present with sore throat, odynophagia, dysphagia, drooling, muffled voice, neck stiffness, fever and trismus. In severe cases, the patient may hold the neck in extension in order to increase airway diameter by distracting the posterior pharynx from the airway. CT scan and MRI are diagnostic but in unstable patients, lateral neck X-ray can demonstrate retropharyngeal swelling supporting the diagnosis. Additionally, if the patient is unable to lie flat for advanced imaging, direct visualization with an upper airway scope can be diagnostic.
Oral antibiotics (C) alone are insufficient for treatment of retropharyngeal abscess in the majority of cases. In addition, the patient should not be discharged home as she is at risk to develop a compromised airway. Ibuprofen, dexamethasone, and a Rapid strep test (B) is the standard treatment for simple pharyngitis. However, this patient has a deep space infection and requires imaging, intravenous antibiotics, ENT consultation and possible surgery. In this patient, there is no swelling of the tonsils to suggest a peritonsillar abscess (D) as the cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 25 year-old man presents after falling face forward off his bike. He sustained an abrasion inside his upper lip and complains of a broken front tooth. He brought the fractured fragment with him. On examination, the bony structures of the jaw are non-tender. There is no malocclusion. Tooth #8 has a fracture and in the center of the exposed area is a small pink dot. What is the most appropriate plan for this patient?
Correct
A. This patient has a dental fracture with exposed pulp. This is a dental emergency requiring dental follow-up within the next 24 hours. The most superficial dental fractures involve only the enamel on the surface and treatment is mostly cosmetic and aimed at dulling any sharp edges. Fractures that expose dentin will have an ivory-yellow appearance. In younger patients, there is less dentin relative to the pulp and treatment is aimed at protecting any pulp contamination with placement of a calcium-hydroxide dressing. Younger patients need more urgent follow-up with a dentist. The most significant dental fractures involve the pulp as in this clinical scenario. The tooth should be gently wiped clean with gauze and inspected for a drop of blood or pink blush which represents pulp exposures. The area is usually exquisitely painful. Timely follow-up (within 24 hours) is required for evaluation and possible root canal and extraction of the pulp. If dental follow-up will be delayed, the tooth should be covered with moist cotton and sealed with dry foil or a temporary commercial sealant. In order to clean the tooth, a clean gauze should be used to wipe off the surface, not irrigation of the tooth (B) as the patient will be extremely sensitive to that and all efforts should be maintained to avoid pulp contamination. Hank’s solution (C) is a physiologic solution in which an avulsed tooth may be placed while waiting for reimplantation into the socket. There is no role in a partial tooth fracture. Viscous lidocaine (D) is not an appropriate analgesic for a dental fracture. Oral analgesics or dental block should be provided for pain control.
Incorrect
A. This patient has a dental fracture with exposed pulp. This is a dental emergency requiring dental follow-up within the next 24 hours. The most superficial dental fractures involve only the enamel on the surface and treatment is mostly cosmetic and aimed at dulling any sharp edges. Fractures that expose dentin will have an ivory-yellow appearance. In younger patients, there is less dentin relative to the pulp and treatment is aimed at protecting any pulp contamination with placement of a calcium-hydroxide dressing. Younger patients need more urgent follow-up with a dentist. The most significant dental fractures involve the pulp as in this clinical scenario. The tooth should be gently wiped clean with gauze and inspected for a drop of blood or pink blush which represents pulp exposures. The area is usually exquisitely painful. Timely follow-up (within 24 hours) is required for evaluation and possible root canal and extraction of the pulp. If dental follow-up will be delayed, the tooth should be covered with moist cotton and sealed with dry foil or a temporary commercial sealant. In order to clean the tooth, a clean gauze should be used to wipe off the surface, not irrigation of the tooth (B) as the patient will be extremely sensitive to that and all efforts should be maintained to avoid pulp contamination. Hank’s solution (C) is a physiologic solution in which an avulsed tooth may be placed while waiting for reimplantation into the socket. There is no role in a partial tooth fracture. Viscous lidocaine (D) is not an appropriate analgesic for a dental fracture. Oral analgesics or dental block should be provided for pain control.
This week we wrap up our three part HEENT block! To start off the day, make sure you pack your calipers, because we will have EKG review with Dr. Berk. Then we move on to FLIP hosted by Drs. Yousif and Moore. They will cover head/neck infections, upper airway obstructions, dental emergencies, and hearing loss. Each FLIP station will cover one chapter of H&N as listed below. Please review at least one of the video links below on cricothyrotomies!!!
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 72-year-old woman presents with anterior epistaxis. On inspection there is a site of active bleeding on the anterior septum that has not stopped with pressure. Which of the following is an appropriate next step in the management of the bleeding?
Correct
The anterior nasal septum is the common location of bleeding in epistaxis. Within the anterior septum is Kiesselbach’s plexus, a watershed area and the most common source of anterior bleeding. Most anterior nosebleeds resolve easily with treatment. The initial step in the evaluation of a nosebleed is to have the patient blow the nose and expel any clots. Inspection of the nose is facilitated using a nasal speculum and adequate light source. If ongoing bleeding is present, the vasoconstricting oxymetazoline spray (Afrin) is helpful in stopping active bleeding. Most episodes of venous anterior bleeding will resolve with the potent vasoconstrictor. If bleeding continues, packing may be used to tamponade the site of bleeding. There are many commercially available devices. Silver nitrate cautery is not useful when applied to a site of active bleeding, it is usually used after bleeding has stopped to prevent recurrence. Foley insertion is used in cases of posterior bleeds. Finally, direct pressure for 15-30 min is a first line maneuver, but it is NOT useful when applied to the BRIDGE of the nose… this is a common error amongst patients who try and prevent bleeding at home.
Incorrect
The anterior nasal septum is the common location of bleeding in epistaxis. Within the anterior septum is Kiesselbach’s plexus, a watershed area and the most common source of anterior bleeding. Most anterior nosebleeds resolve easily with treatment. The initial step in the evaluation of a nosebleed is to have the patient blow the nose and expel any clots. Inspection of the nose is facilitated using a nasal speculum and adequate light source. If ongoing bleeding is present, the vasoconstricting oxymetazoline spray (Afrin) is helpful in stopping active bleeding. Most episodes of venous anterior bleeding will resolve with the potent vasoconstrictor. If bleeding continues, packing may be used to tamponade the site of bleeding. There are many commercially available devices. Silver nitrate cautery is not useful when applied to a site of active bleeding, it is usually used after bleeding has stopped to prevent recurrence. Foley insertion is used in cases of posterior bleeds. Finally, direct pressure for 15-30 min is a first line maneuver, but it is NOT useful when applied to the BRIDGE of the nose… this is a common error amongst patients who try and prevent bleeding at home.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 27-year-old healthy man presents with facial pain and low grade fever. For the last two days he has felt congested and noticed green drainage from his nose. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Correct
Acute sinusitis is defined as inflammation of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses lasting <4 weeks. The most common etiology of sinusitis is a viral infection with acute bacterial sinusitis responsible for only 0.5 to 2 percent of episodes. The most predictive signs of acute sinusitis are purulent rhinorrhea, nasal congestion and facial pain. Viral sinusitis and bacterial sinusitis are indistinguishable clinically and expert consensus recommends considering a bacterial cause once symptoms last more than 7 to 10 days. Treatment of sinusitis is aimed at symptomatic control. Once symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days, a bacterial etiology is possible and antibiotics should be considered. The use of topical glucocorticoids may confer some benefit although data are mixed in trials. Oral decongestant therapy also does not have significant evidence in support of their generalized use. In cases where eustachian tube dysfunction contributes to the development of sinusitis, oral decongestants appear to have benefits. The use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication like ibuprofen does provide pain relief and should be prescribed to the patient.
Incorrect
Acute sinusitis is defined as inflammation of the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses lasting <4 weeks. The most common etiology of sinusitis is a viral infection with acute bacterial sinusitis responsible for only 0.5 to 2 percent of episodes. The most predictive signs of acute sinusitis are purulent rhinorrhea, nasal congestion and facial pain. Viral sinusitis and bacterial sinusitis are indistinguishable clinically and expert consensus recommends considering a bacterial cause once symptoms last more than 7 to 10 days. Treatment of sinusitis is aimed at symptomatic control. Once symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days, a bacterial etiology is possible and antibiotics should be considered. The use of topical glucocorticoids may confer some benefit although data are mixed in trials. Oral decongestant therapy also does not have significant evidence in support of their generalized use. In cases where eustachian tube dysfunction contributes to the development of sinusitis, oral decongestants appear to have benefits. The use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication like ibuprofen does provide pain relief and should be prescribed to the patient.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 33-year-old man present to the ED with massive hemoptysis. He was discharged from the hospital one week ago following a prolonged hospitalization for a gunshot wound to the abdomen that resulted in a percutaneous gastrostomy tube and tracheostomy placement. His vital signs are T 98.4°F, BP 110/78 mm Hg, RR 30 breaths/minute, HR 126 beats/minute, and oxygen saturation 91% with blow-by oxygen. He is actively coughing bright red blood from the stoma site. Which of the following structures is the most likely source of the bleeding?
Correct
One potential complication following a tracheostomy is fistula formation between the trachea and the first aortic arch branch, the innominate (or brachiocephalic) artery. A tracheoinnominate artery fistula is a feared complication following tracheostomy because it can lead to rapid exsanguination if not managed properly in a timely fashion. Fistula formation results from either direct vessel erosion from the tip of the tracheostomy cannula or from an overinflated cuff. It usually develops within the first four weeks after tracheostomy, with most patients presenting within the first two weeks. Patients may present with a transient sentinel bleed or with massive hemoptysis. The initial action of the provider should be to hyperinflate the tracheostomy balloon in an effort to tamponade the bleeding vessel. If this is unsuccessful, the provider should orotracheally intubate the patient. It is important to pass the endotracheal tube past the site of bleeding and inflate the cuff distal to this site. At the same time, the tracheostomy should be removed and a gloved finger should be inserted into the stoma, flexed down toward the innominate artery, and traction pulled against the sternum to digitally tamponade bleeding. This digital technique is called the Utley maneuver and is used to control stomal hemorrhage. These are temporizing measures, and otolaryngology or thoracic surgery should be consulted immediately as tracheobronchoscopy and operative repair are indicated.
Incorrect
One potential complication following a tracheostomy is fistula formation between the trachea and the first aortic arch branch, the innominate (or brachiocephalic) artery. A tracheoinnominate artery fistula is a feared complication following tracheostomy because it can lead to rapid exsanguination if not managed properly in a timely fashion. Fistula formation results from either direct vessel erosion from the tip of the tracheostomy cannula or from an overinflated cuff. It usually develops within the first four weeks after tracheostomy, with most patients presenting within the first two weeks. Patients may present with a transient sentinel bleed or with massive hemoptysis. The initial action of the provider should be to hyperinflate the tracheostomy balloon in an effort to tamponade the bleeding vessel. If this is unsuccessful, the provider should orotracheally intubate the patient. It is important to pass the endotracheal tube past the site of bleeding and inflate the cuff distal to this site. At the same time, the tracheostomy should be removed and a gloved finger should be inserted into the stoma, flexed down toward the innominate artery, and traction pulled against the sternum to digitally tamponade bleeding. This digital technique is called the Utley maneuver and is used to control stomal hemorrhage. These are temporizing measures, and otolaryngology or thoracic surgery should be consulted immediately as tracheobronchoscopy and operative repair are indicated.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
Which of the following is the most common etiology of external otitis?
Correct
The most common cause of otitis externa is infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosaand Staphylococcus aureus. The pain from otitis externa is caused by inflammation and edema of the ear canal skin, which is normally adherent to the bone and cartilage of the auditory canal. The inflammatory reaction can be caused by bacteria, fungi, or contact dermatitis. Cerumen protects the canal by forming an acidic coat that helps prevent infection. Factors that predispose to otitis externa include absence of cerumen, often from excessive cleaning by the patient, water that macerates the skin of the auditory canal and raises the pH, and trauma to the skin of the auditory canal from foreign bodies or use of cotton swabs. Treatment includes suction and gentle warm irrigation of the canal. 2% acetic acid solution or an alternative drying medication can be administered. A topical antibiotic drop with steroid is first-line therapy (neomycin/polymyxin/hydrocortisone). Use the suspension rather than the solution if the tympanic membrane is ruptured.
Incorrect
The most common cause of otitis externa is infection due to Pseudomonas aeruginosaand Staphylococcus aureus. The pain from otitis externa is caused by inflammation and edema of the ear canal skin, which is normally adherent to the bone and cartilage of the auditory canal. The inflammatory reaction can be caused by bacteria, fungi, or contact dermatitis. Cerumen protects the canal by forming an acidic coat that helps prevent infection. Factors that predispose to otitis externa include absence of cerumen, often from excessive cleaning by the patient, water that macerates the skin of the auditory canal and raises the pH, and trauma to the skin of the auditory canal from foreign bodies or use of cotton swabs. Treatment includes suction and gentle warm irrigation of the canal. 2% acetic acid solution or an alternative drying medication can be administered. A topical antibiotic drop with steroid is first-line therapy (neomycin/polymyxin/hydrocortisone). Use the suspension rather than the solution if the tympanic membrane is ruptured.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 36-year-old woman presents to the ED complaining of decreased hearing and increased fullness to the right ear. Over the last week, she has used cotton-tipped applicators to attempt to remove cerumen from her right ear. On exam, you notice a cerumen-impacted external canal on the right. You irrigate the right ear with warm saline using an 18-gauge IV catheter and a plastic curette to remove the cerumen. During the procedure, the patient has sudden increased hearing loss to the right ear. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
The patient is complaining of symptoms consistent with iatrogenic tympanic membrane perforation that occurred during disimpaction. Tympanic membrane perforations (TMPs) can result from a complication of infection (acute otitis media, myringitis); blast injury (explosion, slap, lightening); barometric pressure changes (flying in airplane, scuba diving); and improper attempts at wax removal or ear cleaning. The pars tensa is the most common area of the TM to perforate because it is the most anterior and thinnest portion. Patients typically experience decreased or complete hearing loss, pain, and bleeding. In the setting of tympanic membrane perforation, the goal is to keep the ear dry, provide analgesics, and arrange for follow-up with an ENT. Most heal within a few months.
The patient does not require admission (A) to the hospital. ENT care can be arranged for as an outpatient. Traumatic tympanic membrane perforations do not require otic antibiotics (B) unless the ear was contaminated such as from diving in seawater or the rupture is secondary to infection. The patient should receive more than a cotton ball (D) in her ear. Her management should include analgesia and ENT follow-up because complications of tympanic membrane rupture include facial nerve palsy, vertigo, and hearing loss.
Incorrect
The patient is complaining of symptoms consistent with iatrogenic tympanic membrane perforation that occurred during disimpaction. Tympanic membrane perforations (TMPs) can result from a complication of infection (acute otitis media, myringitis); blast injury (explosion, slap, lightening); barometric pressure changes (flying in airplane, scuba diving); and improper attempts at wax removal or ear cleaning. The pars tensa is the most common area of the TM to perforate because it is the most anterior and thinnest portion. Patients typically experience decreased or complete hearing loss, pain, and bleeding. In the setting of tympanic membrane perforation, the goal is to keep the ear dry, provide analgesics, and arrange for follow-up with an ENT. Most heal within a few months.
The patient does not require admission (A) to the hospital. ENT care can be arranged for as an outpatient. Traumatic tympanic membrane perforations do not require otic antibiotics (B) unless the ear was contaminated such as from diving in seawater or the rupture is secondary to infection. The patient should receive more than a cotton ball (D) in her ear. Her management should include analgesia and ENT follow-up because complications of tympanic membrane rupture include facial nerve palsy, vertigo, and hearing loss.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 49-year-old woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents stating that she feels like the room around her is spinning. She reports a similar episode three weeks ago, and since then, has had an intermittent ringing sound in her ears. Her husband adds that over the same time frame she also has developed some difficulty hearing from the left ear. During your exam, the patient has an episode of non-bilious vomiting and states that the room is spinning again. Vital signs are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
This patient has Ménière’s disease. This disorder is associated with increased endolymph within the cochlea and labyrinth. The common triad is tinnitus, vertigo, and unilateral hearing loss (sensorineural). A key finding in Ménière’s disease is fluctuating hearing loss. Episodes are abrupt in onset and associated with nausea and vomiting. There are often long, symptom-free intervals between attacks.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (A) is sudden in onset, short-lived, and positional in nature. It is not associated with tinnitus or hearing loss. Salicylate (aspirin) toxicity (C) is associated with tinnitus and reversible hearing loss. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis and may be using aspirin for her pain; however, salicylate toxicity is usually associated with bilateral hearing loss. Symptoms of vertigo are also uncommon in such patients. Vestibular neuronitis (D) manifests with severe vertigo positional in nature but not associated with hearing loss. It is usually preceded by a viral upper respiratory infection.
Incorrect
This patient has Ménière’s disease. This disorder is associated with increased endolymph within the cochlea and labyrinth. The common triad is tinnitus, vertigo, and unilateral hearing loss (sensorineural). A key finding in Ménière’s disease is fluctuating hearing loss. Episodes are abrupt in onset and associated with nausea and vomiting. There are often long, symptom-free intervals between attacks.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (A) is sudden in onset, short-lived, and positional in nature. It is not associated with tinnitus or hearing loss. Salicylate (aspirin) toxicity (C) is associated with tinnitus and reversible hearing loss. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis and may be using aspirin for her pain; however, salicylate toxicity is usually associated with bilateral hearing loss. Symptoms of vertigo are also uncommon in such patients. Vestibular neuronitis (D) manifests with severe vertigo positional in nature but not associated with hearing loss. It is usually preceded by a viral upper respiratory infection.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 93-year-old man on aspirin presents to the ED with epistaxis. On physical exam, you note brisk bleeding from bilateral nares and down the posterior pharynx. You are unable to visualize the source of bleeding. Which of the following vessels is most likely the source of bleeding in this patient?
Correct
This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of posterior epistaxis. Posterior epistaxis is less common than anterior epistaxis and is most commonly due to bleeding from the sphenopalatine artery, located at the posterior aspect of the middle nasal turbinate. Patients with posterior epistaxis typically complain of bleeding from both nostrils. Inspection of the posterior pharynx may reveal profuse bleeding. In treating epistaxis, start by having the patient gently blow his nose or suction out the blood. If the bleeding is profuse, apply cotton balls soaked in a topical anesthetic and vasoconstrictor for at least five minutes. A good option is 1% tetracaine plus 0.05% oxymetazoline solution. In posterior epistaxis, this may not achieve hemostasis or allow visualization of the location of bleeding. Management of posterior epistaxis should be with either a Foley catheter or dual balloon pack. A 10 to 14 French Foley catheter with a 30 cc inflatable balloon may be inserted past the site of the bleeding and inflated with 5 to 7 cc of air or saline. It should then be pulled back onto the site of the posterior bleed and inflated until it is snug. An anterior nasal pack should then be placed in both nares. A dual balloon pack is placed by anesthetizing the nare and advancing the pack past the site of the bleeding. The posterior balloon is inflated with 5 to 7 cc of saline or air and pulled back onto the site of bleeding. It is the further inflated until it is snug. The anterior balloon is then inflated. The opposite nare should be packed as well. Complications of posterior epistaxis packing include aspiration, hypoxia, hypercarbia, and symptomatic bradycardia. Antibiotics should be administered after all packing; however, there is significant controversy regarding whether prescribing antibiotics actually prevents toxic shock syndrome as there is no evidence to support this. All patients with posterior packing should be admitted to a telemetry bed for further monitoring while the packing is in place.
The facial artery (A) may be injured during oncologic surgery of the parotid gland or in severe facial trauma. Kiesselbach plexus (B) is the most common source of anterior bleeding. Given that this patient has profuse bleeding that appears bilateral, the source is most likely to be posterior. The labial artery (C) is most commonly injured in children who suffer electrical burns of the commissure of the lip while chewing on electrical cords.
Incorrect
This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of posterior epistaxis. Posterior epistaxis is less common than anterior epistaxis and is most commonly due to bleeding from the sphenopalatine artery, located at the posterior aspect of the middle nasal turbinate. Patients with posterior epistaxis typically complain of bleeding from both nostrils. Inspection of the posterior pharynx may reveal profuse bleeding. In treating epistaxis, start by having the patient gently blow his nose or suction out the blood. If the bleeding is profuse, apply cotton balls soaked in a topical anesthetic and vasoconstrictor for at least five minutes. A good option is 1% tetracaine plus 0.05% oxymetazoline solution. In posterior epistaxis, this may not achieve hemostasis or allow visualization of the location of bleeding. Management of posterior epistaxis should be with either a Foley catheter or dual balloon pack. A 10 to 14 French Foley catheter with a 30 cc inflatable balloon may be inserted past the site of the bleeding and inflated with 5 to 7 cc of air or saline. It should then be pulled back onto the site of the posterior bleed and inflated until it is snug. An anterior nasal pack should then be placed in both nares. A dual balloon pack is placed by anesthetizing the nare and advancing the pack past the site of the bleeding. The posterior balloon is inflated with 5 to 7 cc of saline or air and pulled back onto the site of bleeding. It is the further inflated until it is snug. The anterior balloon is then inflated. The opposite nare should be packed as well. Complications of posterior epistaxis packing include aspiration, hypoxia, hypercarbia, and symptomatic bradycardia. Antibiotics should be administered after all packing; however, there is significant controversy regarding whether prescribing antibiotics actually prevents toxic shock syndrome as there is no evidence to support this. All patients with posterior packing should be admitted to a telemetry bed for further monitoring while the packing is in place.
The facial artery (A) may be injured during oncologic surgery of the parotid gland or in severe facial trauma. Kiesselbach plexus (B) is the most common source of anterior bleeding. Given that this patient has profuse bleeding that appears bilateral, the source is most likely to be posterior. The labial artery (C) is most commonly injured in children who suffer electrical burns of the commissure of the lip while chewing on electrical cords.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A father brings in his 3-year-old daughter because she has had swelling and severe pain behind her left ear for the past 2 days, as shown. She recently completed a course of amoxicillin treatment for otitis media of the same ear. Temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F).
What is the best next step in treatment?
Correct
In this case, the patient has symptoms concerning for mastoiditis. Mastoiditis is most common in children between 1 and 3 years old. It is a complication of acute otitis media with extension of the infection into the mastoid bone. Patients typically present with ear proptosis, fever, an injected tympanic membrane on the infected side, and postauricular erythema. Organisms involved in this infection are similar to those in otitis media, including Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Diagnosis is confirmed by CT, and consultation with ENT is indicated. If the patient has not taken antibiotics before, the initial treatment is with oral antibiotics if the disease is mild and close follow-up can be ensured. If a patient develops mastoiditis after an appropriate course of oral antibiotics, then admission, ENT consultation, and intravenous antibiotic therapy are warranted. Antibiotics with good gram-positive coverage like ampicillin-sulbactam or third-generation cephalosporins are the first-line choice.
B. This patient has already completed one course of antibiotic therapy, so starting her on a different oral antibiotic is not appropriate. Admission is warranted for more aggressive management.
C. Discharging the patient with instructions for supportive care is not the right course of action, again, because initial antimicrobial treatment failed. Admission and additional antibiotics are needed to treat the acute infection process.
D. At this point in the patient’s care, intravenous antibiotic therapy is the next step. Mastoidectomy should be considered only if intravenous antibiotic therapy fails and the infection spreads beyond the mastoid.
Incorrect
In this case, the patient has symptoms concerning for mastoiditis. Mastoiditis is most common in children between 1 and 3 years old. It is a complication of acute otitis media with extension of the infection into the mastoid bone. Patients typically present with ear proptosis, fever, an injected tympanic membrane on the infected side, and postauricular erythema. Organisms involved in this infection are similar to those in otitis media, including Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Diagnosis is confirmed by CT, and consultation with ENT is indicated. If the patient has not taken antibiotics before, the initial treatment is with oral antibiotics if the disease is mild and close follow-up can be ensured. If a patient develops mastoiditis after an appropriate course of oral antibiotics, then admission, ENT consultation, and intravenous antibiotic therapy are warranted. Antibiotics with good gram-positive coverage like ampicillin-sulbactam or third-generation cephalosporins are the first-line choice.
B. This patient has already completed one course of antibiotic therapy, so starting her on a different oral antibiotic is not appropriate. Admission is warranted for more aggressive management.
C. Discharging the patient with instructions for supportive care is not the right course of action, again, because initial antimicrobial treatment failed. Admission and additional antibiotics are needed to treat the acute infection process.
D. At this point in the patient’s care, intravenous antibiotic therapy is the next step. Mastoidectomy should be considered only if intravenous antibiotic therapy fails and the infection spreads beyond the mastoid.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 2-year-old boy is brought in by his grandmother, who says he is running a fever to a max of 38.2 C over the past day and “pulling” on his right ear. He has not had vomiting, cough, neck stiffness, mastoid tenderness to palpation, ear drainage, or any other symptoms. Findings of the otoscopic examination of the left ear is normal and findings in the right are shown below.
What is the most appropriate outpatient treatment?
Correct
The patient has symptoms consistent with acute otitis media. He is a candidate for a “wait-and-see” prescription for an antibiotic if his symptoms do not improve in 48 to 72 hours. He meets the criteria for “wait and see” including age ≥ to 2 years old, unilateral infection, symptoms for fewer than 48 hours, and temperature is less than 39⁰C. Assuming there are no contraindications, amoxicillin (90 mg/kg/day PO for 5-10 days) is the first-line treatment. Amoxicillin-clavulanate is appropriate if the patient has failed a course of amoxicillin. Cephalosporins like cefdinir or cefuroxime or clindamycin are appropriate in penicillin-allergic patients. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common bacterial organism, although most cases are viral.
A. Given the tympanic membrane visualized, antipyretics alone are not sufficient if there is no improvement within 48 to 72 hours. Complications from untreated bacterial otitis media include mastoiditis and hearing complications.
B. If the wait-and-see approach fails, the patient should complete a course of antibiotics. Referral to an ENT for possible tympanostomy should only occur after repeated episodes of otitis media.
C. Immediate use of antibiotics has been shown not to improve outcomes when using these criteria. In addition, there is an increased risk of diarrhea and antibiotic resistance for those who take antibiotics.
Incorrect
The patient has symptoms consistent with acute otitis media. He is a candidate for a “wait-and-see” prescription for an antibiotic if his symptoms do not improve in 48 to 72 hours. He meets the criteria for “wait and see” including age ≥ to 2 years old, unilateral infection, symptoms for fewer than 48 hours, and temperature is less than 39⁰C. Assuming there are no contraindications, amoxicillin (90 mg/kg/day PO for 5-10 days) is the first-line treatment. Amoxicillin-clavulanate is appropriate if the patient has failed a course of amoxicillin. Cephalosporins like cefdinir or cefuroxime or clindamycin are appropriate in penicillin-allergic patients. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common bacterial organism, although most cases are viral.
A. Given the tympanic membrane visualized, antipyretics alone are not sufficient if there is no improvement within 48 to 72 hours. Complications from untreated bacterial otitis media include mastoiditis and hearing complications.
B. If the wait-and-see approach fails, the patient should complete a course of antibiotics. Referral to an ENT for possible tympanostomy should only occur after repeated episodes of otitis media.
C. Immediate use of antibiotics has been shown not to improve outcomes when using these criteria. In addition, there is an increased risk of diarrhea and antibiotic resistance for those who take antibiotics.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 20-year-old woman presents with an acute onset of dizziness. The patient describes the sensation that the room is spinning when she turns her head to the left and it is accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The symptoms resolve with turning her head away from that side. Examination reveals left-sided nystagmus elicited by movement and no other neurologic findings. What treatment is indicated?
Correct
This patient presents with peripheral vertigo most consistent with benign paroxysmal peripheral vertigo (BPPV) and should be treated with an Epley maneuver. Vertigo is defined as the sensation of disorientation in space combined with a sensation of motion. Patients typically describe a room-spinning sensation or the feeling of sea sickness. Vertigo can be divided into two types: central and peripheral. Central vertigo are those disorders arising from the central nervous system and include ischemic stroke, vertebrobasilar insufficiency and infectious causes (meningitis, mastoiditis, syphilis). Central vertigo is characterized by longer duration of symptoms, minimal change with position, gradual onset and multidirectional nystagmus. Peripheral vertigo includes BPPV, Menieres disease, Labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis. Peripheral vertigo may have intermittent symptoms (BPPV) or continuous symptoms but should not be associated with other neurologic deficits or changes and should have unidirectional nystagmus. The symptoms in BPPV are elicited by specific movements of the head and relieved by returning the head to a neutral position. The symptoms should be acute in onset and of a short duration. In BPPV, the symptoms are caused by the presence of an otolith in one of the semicircular canals. Although pharmacologic intervention may be necessary in the acute setting with meclizine or benzodiazepines, the best treatment for BPPV is the Epley maneuver. The Epley maneuver is a series of positions that the clinician takes the patient through that leads to expulsion of the otolith from the semicircular canal and relief of symptoms. The Dix-Hallpike test is a DIAGNOSTIC test, not a treatment
Incorrect
This patient presents with peripheral vertigo most consistent with benign paroxysmal peripheral vertigo (BPPV) and should be treated with an Epley maneuver. Vertigo is defined as the sensation of disorientation in space combined with a sensation of motion. Patients typically describe a room-spinning sensation or the feeling of sea sickness. Vertigo can be divided into two types: central and peripheral. Central vertigo are those disorders arising from the central nervous system and include ischemic stroke, vertebrobasilar insufficiency and infectious causes (meningitis, mastoiditis, syphilis). Central vertigo is characterized by longer duration of symptoms, minimal change with position, gradual onset and multidirectional nystagmus. Peripheral vertigo includes BPPV, Menieres disease, Labyrinthitis and vestibular neuritis. Peripheral vertigo may have intermittent symptoms (BPPV) or continuous symptoms but should not be associated with other neurologic deficits or changes and should have unidirectional nystagmus. The symptoms in BPPV are elicited by specific movements of the head and relieved by returning the head to a neutral position. The symptoms should be acute in onset and of a short duration. In BPPV, the symptoms are caused by the presence of an otolith in one of the semicircular canals. Although pharmacologic intervention may be necessary in the acute setting with meclizine or benzodiazepines, the best treatment for BPPV is the Epley maneuver. The Epley maneuver is a series of positions that the clinician takes the patient through that leads to expulsion of the otolith from the semicircular canal and relief of symptoms. The Dix-Hallpike test is a DIAGNOSTIC test, not a treatment
Spring is in the air everybody, so take a deep whiff of that Detroit musk, because it’s time for the second installment of our EENT series. We will kick things off with Dr. Burkholder as he gives us a taste of caution and wisdom with his much anticipated M&M case. Next up is intern FLIP hosted by Drs. Maqbool and Wilde, covering epistaxis, sinusitis/sore throat, ear maladies, and tracheostomy mgmt… it’s a lot to swallow I know. Finally, we’ll be all ears for “The Reines of Castamere”, a bonus M&M from the illustrious Dr. Reines… don’t choke Jon, the Blaine Whitewalkers are coming for you.
ROSENS TEXT 19. Dizziness and Vertigo 23. Sore Throat 72. Otolaryngology 187. Evaluation of the Developmentally or Physically Disabled Patient (section on trach. tubes)
Welcome back to FLIP. This week we will cover Eye stuff. FLIP will be sandwiched by a few Oral Boards cases in the morning, and M&M by Dr. Aquino before lunch. We will have 4 stations: 1) painless and 2) painful vision loss, 3) slit lamp station, and 4) rapid ophtho cases.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A chemistry undergraduate student presents after a splash to the eyes during an experiment 15 minutes ago. The initial pH of the affected eye is 11. After a liter of irrigation with a Morgan Lens, another litmus paper test is performed and shown. At what point can you discontinue irrigation of the eye?
Correct
In ANY case of chemical exposure to the eye the first step is irrigation of the eye, and while pH should ideally be measured immediately it should NOT delay irrigation. Note that tetracaine is an acidic substance and if administered prior to pH measurement it may give a false reading. The pH of this patient’s eye is 8, and the goal pH of the eye should be 7.0-7.4 and irrigation should continue until that is achieved to prevent further liquefactive necrosis in this case (remember that acidic injury causes coagulative necrosis and basic injury causes liquefactive necrosis). Emergent Ophtho consult is indicated. Once the goal pH is met, the eye should subsequently be stained with fluorescein and examined for any abrasion or ulceration.
Incorrect
In ANY case of chemical exposure to the eye the first step is irrigation of the eye, and while pH should ideally be measured immediately it should NOT delay irrigation. Note that tetracaine is an acidic substance and if administered prior to pH measurement it may give a false reading. The pH of this patient’s eye is 8, and the goal pH of the eye should be 7.0-7.4 and irrigation should continue until that is achieved to prevent further liquefactive necrosis in this case (remember that acidic injury causes coagulative necrosis and basic injury causes liquefactive necrosis). Emergent Ophtho consult is indicated. Once the goal pH is met, the eye should subsequently be stained with fluorescein and examined for any abrasion or ulceration.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 21-year old male construction worker presents with acute left eye pain while using a power sander at work. Visual acuity is OD 20/25 and OS 20/200. There is diffuse conjunctival injection to the left eye, and fluoroscein staining on the left eye is shown below. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
Correct
This image depicts Seidel’s sign (fluorescein moves away as contents (which appear yellow-green) leak out at site of globe rupture). When a globe rupture is suspected you should avoid any manipulation of the eye (tonometry is contraindicated!). While awaiting emergent ophthalmology consultation for operative repair, a CT orbit should be performed to rule out posterior ocular injury as well as identification of the foreign body. A tetanus vaccine should be documented as up-to-date, as well as prophylactic systemic antibiotics, any pain should be adequately controlled, and anti-emetics provided (to prevent further extrusion of ocular contents due to increased intraocular pressure when vomiting).
Incorrect
This image depicts Seidel’s sign (fluorescein moves away as contents (which appear yellow-green) leak out at site of globe rupture). When a globe rupture is suspected you should avoid any manipulation of the eye (tonometry is contraindicated!). While awaiting emergent ophthalmology consultation for operative repair, a CT orbit should be performed to rule out posterior ocular injury as well as identification of the foreign body. A tetanus vaccine should be documented as up-to-date, as well as prophylactic systemic antibiotics, any pain should be adequately controlled, and anti-emetics provided (to prevent further extrusion of ocular contents due to increased intraocular pressure when vomiting).
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A patient is hit in the eye by a ping pong ball and presents with moderate pain of his eye. Visual acuity is mildly decreased and intraocular pressures are within normal limits. His eye is shown below. What is the proper management at this time?
Correct
Patient is presenting with a Grade I hyphema. Treatment recommendations for a mild hyphema are bed rest, head of bed elevation to encourage layering out of red blood cells and clot formation. Ophtho follow up and discussion of risk of rebleeding from clot contraction are also indicated. Only severe cases of Grade IV aka “eight-ball” hyphema require surgical drainage/admission. An exception to this management plan is sickle cell patients, in which a hyphemia is emergent and requires ophtho consultation immediately. Additionally, anti-coagulation medications may cause or increase risk of developing a hyphema.
Incorrect
Patient is presenting with a Grade I hyphema. Treatment recommendations for a mild hyphema are bed rest, head of bed elevation to encourage layering out of red blood cells and clot formation. Ophtho follow up and discussion of risk of rebleeding from clot contraction are also indicated. Only severe cases of Grade IV aka “eight-ball” hyphema require surgical drainage/admission. An exception to this management plan is sickle cell patients, in which a hyphemia is emergent and requires ophtho consultation immediately. Additionally, anti-coagulation medications may cause or increase risk of developing a hyphema.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 25 year old male presents with painful bilateral eyes for the past few days. He uses contact lenses and states that despite taking off his contact lenses he feels “something is stuck.” He denies recent illness, trauma or exposure. Pupils are equally reactive, and both eyes demonstrate diffuse bulbar conjunctival injection. Slit lamp exam with fluoroscein staining is shown. His pain is immediately relieved with administration of tetracaine anesthetic drops. There is no eyelid swelling or rashes. Which of the following is the correct diagnosis?
Correct
Diffuse superficial punctate keratitis (SPK) is usually an acute process arising from contact lens complications, UV exposure from welding or snow blindness, chemical exposure, topical eye medication toxicity, or in extreme dry eye cases. Symptoms include red eye, pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, +/- mildly decreased visual acuity. Defining features of SPK on fluorescein stain include: pinpoint corneal epithelial defects that enhance. Classically, pain is relieved by the instillation of anesthetic drops, suggesting corneal epithelial involvement.
Non-contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should receive artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as erythromycin ointment for 3-5 days. Ophthalmology followup is usually on a non-emergent basis.
Contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should discontinue contact lens use until the condition resolves, with artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as fluoroquinolone or tobramycin. Urgent ophthalmology followup should be given.
Incorrect
Diffuse superficial punctate keratitis (SPK) is usually an acute process arising from contact lens complications, UV exposure from welding or snow blindness, chemical exposure, topical eye medication toxicity, or in extreme dry eye cases. Symptoms include red eye, pain, photophobia, foreign body sensation, +/- mildly decreased visual acuity. Defining features of SPK on fluorescein stain include: pinpoint corneal epithelial defects that enhance. Classically, pain is relieved by the instillation of anesthetic drops, suggesting corneal epithelial involvement.
Non-contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should receive artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as erythromycin ointment for 3-5 days. Ophthalmology followup is usually on a non-emergent basis.
Contact lens wearers with a small amount of SPK should discontinue contact lens use until the condition resolves, with artificial tears +/- lubricating ointment. Severe amounts of SPK should also receive topical antibiotics such as fluoroquinolone or tobramycin. Urgent ophthalmology followup should be given.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
What is the initial treatment for the patient shown below?
Correct
A hordeolum or stye is an abscess of the eyelid. It presents with pain, erythema, and swelling. Most resolve without intervention. Warm compresses for 15 minutes four times a day may help facilitate drainage. If the hordeolum does not improve in one to two weeks, the patient should be referred to an ophthalmologist for potential incision and drainage or antibiotics.
mnemonic: the Hordeolum is HOT and the Chalazion is COLD, but regardless of what it is warm compress you’ll hold
The hordeolum is an infectious process so will be inflammed and painful, while the chalazion is a painless “cold” cyst, regardless first line treatment is conservative
Incorrect
A hordeolum or stye is an abscess of the eyelid. It presents with pain, erythema, and swelling. Most resolve without intervention. Warm compresses for 15 minutes four times a day may help facilitate drainage. If the hordeolum does not improve in one to two weeks, the patient should be referred to an ophthalmologist for potential incision and drainage or antibiotics.
mnemonic: the Hordeolum is HOT and the Chalazion is COLD, but regardless of what it is warm compress you’ll hold
The hordeolum is an infectious process so will be inflammed and painful, while the chalazion is a painless “cold” cyst, regardless first line treatment is conservative
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 29-year-old man presents with numerous painless floaters in his left eye and shadowing in the periphery of his vision. The symptoms started after he went skydiving this morning. On the drive to the hospital, the lines of the road appeared to be curving when viewed in his left eye, even though he knew them to be straight. He has myopia, corrected with glasses. His corrected visual acuity is 20/20 in the right eye and 20/30 in the left eye, with decreased peripheral vision on the left. Ocular ultrasound is shown in the image below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Retinal detachment’s should be suspected in patient’s with monocular vision loss symptoms. They can be seen in older diabetic patients, however should be suspected in younger patients with trauma such as motor vehicle crashes, skydiving, bungee jumping, and other activities with sudden deceleration forces are risk factors. Patients with myopia (such as this patient) are at higher risk of traumatic retinal detachment. Diagnosis can be made with indirect ophthalmoscopy or ultrasound. Ultrasound will show a discrete hyperechoic retinal line projecting out from the posterior globe. Patients usually present with painless vision changes, including flashes of light, floaters, or the classic “curtain-like” loss of vision. Retinal detachment is an ophthalmologic emergency and early intervention can prevent worsening of the detachment.
Involvement of the macula is important to determine. If the retinal detachment involves the macula (“mac on”) it is LESS emergent than if the macula is not involved (“mac off”), this is because emergent surgical correction can salvage the macula in a “mac off” situation.
Retinal detachment is usually a thicker line which will not cross over the optic nerve as the retina is an extension of the nerve. This is in comparison to posterior vitreal hemorrhage which appears as a whispy thin line which can cross over the optic nerve. See the video link below.
A 39-year-old woman presents with pain and swelling around the eye as seen above. Extraocular motions are intact and vision is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Correct
This patient presents with dacryocystitis and should be treated with oral anti-staphylococcal antibiotics. Dacryocystitis is an acute infection of the lacrimal sac secondary to lacrimal duct obstruction. Given the obstruction of the lacrimal duct, topical abx treatment of the eye alone will not provide penetration into the infected area. It is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include swelling, redness, pain and tenderness to palpation over the lacrimal sac. Diagnosis can be aided with a fluorescein stain, aka fluorescein disappearance test, which sill either show lack of clearance of fluorescein dye to the eye over 5 minutes or fluorescein spilling out as tears (normal eye will clear fluorescein in <5 minutes). In addition to oral antibiotics, patients should be treated with warm compresses and gentle massage of the area. Complications of improperly treated dacryocystitis include peri-orbital and orbital cellulitis.
Incorrect
This patient presents with dacryocystitis and should be treated with oral anti-staphylococcal antibiotics. Dacryocystitis is an acute infection of the lacrimal sac secondary to lacrimal duct obstruction. Given the obstruction of the lacrimal duct, topical abx treatment of the eye alone will not provide penetration into the infected area. It is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include swelling, redness, pain and tenderness to palpation over the lacrimal sac. Diagnosis can be aided with a fluorescein stain, aka fluorescein disappearance test, which sill either show lack of clearance of fluorescein dye to the eye over 5 minutes or fluorescein spilling out as tears (normal eye will clear fluorescein in <5 minutes). In addition to oral antibiotics, patients should be treated with warm compresses and gentle massage of the area. Complications of improperly treated dacryocystitis include peri-orbital and orbital cellulitis.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department for left eye pain. Yesterday she scratched her eye while putting in her contact lens. She has had constant left eye pain and tearing since, and denies foreign body sensation. On exam, visual acuity is 20/20 OU. Fluorescein exam findings are shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s condition?
Correct
This patient’s fluorescein exam is consistent with a corneal abrasion. It is caused by direct mechanical damage, leading to a partial-thickness corneal injury. Athletes, contact lens wearers, welders, and glass workers may present more often with these injuries. Diagnosis is confirmed when fluorescein dye highlights the usually linear or punctate abrasions. Multiple vertical corneal abrasions may indicate a retained foreign body beneath the eyelid. Corneal abrasion fluorescein exam findings are not to be confused with open globe injuries (streaking of the dye from the site of injury), corneal ulcers (circular patches of dye uptake with ragged, “heaped up” edges), and herpes simplex keratitis (dendritic pattern uptake). Patients commonly present with eye pain and tearing with a usually known mechanism of injury. The mainstay of treatment includes pain control, infection prophylaxis, updating tetanus as needed and preventative care to avoid abrasions in the future. For non-contact wearers prescribe erythromycin ointment, as this does not cover pseudomonal infections, contact lens wearers should be prescribed ciprofloxacin or tobramycin ophthalmic drops
Incorrect
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 27-year-old woman presents to a rural emergency department after getting kicked in the face by a horse two hours prior to arrival. Her left eye is swollen and she states that her left eye vision has worsened to the point she can no longer see. She complains of worsening pressure behind the left eye. She denies loss of consciousness. On exam, the patient has severe swelling and ecchymosis to the left periorbital region with proptosis. She cannot see with her left eye and is unable to move it. What is the next best step?
Correct
A lateral canthotomy should be performed in this woman who presents with classic symptoms for a traumatic injury causing retrobulbar hematoma and resultant orbital compartment syndrome. She displays the triad of symptoms including loss of vision, ophthalmoplegia, and proptosis. A retrobulbar hemorrhage from a ruptured infraorbital or ethmoidal artery with intact orbital walls may lead to orbital compartment syndrome. Loss of vision is irreversible 60–100 minutes after the onset of ischemia and so lateral canthotomy and inferior cantholysis should be performed in order to decompress the orbit and preserve vision. Intraocular pressure-lowering agents such as intravenous carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, topical beta-blockers, alpha agonists, and intravenous mannitol are temporizing measures.
Incorrect
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 37-year old male presents to the Emergency Department with progressively worsening right eye pain and vision. He was cutting metal three days prior when he suddenly felt something go into his eye. Since then, his vision has worsened to the point of only light perception. His left eye is unaffected. Gross visual inspection of the eye is as shown. There is no afferent pupillary defect. Vital signs are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
Correct
This patient has traumatic endopthalmitis. Suspicion should be high in any patient with recent trauma or intraocular surgery and signs/symptoms of infection or with hypopyon (purulent/white layering of fluid in anterior chamber). Manipulation of the eye should be avoided due to concern for globe rupture in this patient (e.g. ocular US/tonometry). A stat CT orbit is indicated to examine for foreign body. Systemic antibiotics are indicated in traumatic endopthalmitis, treatment should be broad-spectrum and common courses include vanc/ceftazidime. While at DRH vanc/cefepime is commonly used to treat various infections, BE AWARE that cefepime has relatively poor penetration into the vitrea and is not recommended. Common pathogens include staph/strep and oddly enough bacillus cereus. Topical antibiotics alone are insufficient. It is essential to consult ophthalmology as definitive management is generally surgical: vitrectomy and intra-vitreal abx injection.
Incorrect
This patient has traumatic endopthalmitis. Suspicion should be high in any patient with recent trauma or intraocular surgery and signs/symptoms of infection or with hypopyon (purulent/white layering of fluid in anterior chamber). Manipulation of the eye should be avoided due to concern for globe rupture in this patient (e.g. ocular US/tonometry). A stat CT orbit is indicated to examine for foreign body. Systemic antibiotics are indicated in traumatic endopthalmitis, treatment should be broad-spectrum and common courses include vanc/ceftazidime. While at DRH vanc/cefepime is commonly used to treat various infections, BE AWARE that cefepime has relatively poor penetration into the vitrea and is not recommended. Common pathogens include staph/strep and oddly enough bacillus cereus. Topical antibiotics alone are insufficient. It is essential to consult ophthalmology as definitive management is generally surgical: vitrectomy and intra-vitreal abx injection.
This week will be a customized week covering Peds and attending life. We will start the first half of conference with 4 rotated Pediatric Emergency Cases. The second half of conference will then be a Q&A panel with our new (1-3 years out) MCES attending physicians. This will be beneficial for all years, but especially for PGY-3s.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 32-year-old woman, who is at 20 weeks gestational age, presents to the ED after a seizure. Her vital signs are BP 115/70, HR 105, RR 16, T 38.5°C, and pulse oximetry 98% on room air. On exam, you note some confusion, but otherwise there are no focal deficits. Lab results reveal a hemoglobin of 7 g/dL and platelets of 12,000/µL. A peripheral blood smear reveals schistocytes. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?
Correct
The patient has thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). The classic pentad of TTP includes CNS abnormalities, renal pathology, fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia. However, diagnostic criteria have recently been simplified to include all adults with microangiopathic or microvascular hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia with no other explanation for these findings. TTP shares many clinical and laboratory features of HELLP syndrome. HELLP syndrome is less common before 24 weeks gestation. The derangements in hemoglobin and platelet levels are more severe in TTP. The mainstay of treatment for TTP is plasmapheresis (plasma exchange), which can achieve remission of disease in 80% of patients. If plasmapheresis cannot be immediately performed, fresh frozen plasma (FFP) should be administered until apheresis can be performed.
Incorrect
The patient has thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). The classic pentad of TTP includes CNS abnormalities, renal pathology, fever, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia. However, diagnostic criteria have recently been simplified to include all adults with microangiopathic or microvascular hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia with no other explanation for these findings. TTP shares many clinical and laboratory features of HELLP syndrome. HELLP syndrome is less common before 24 weeks gestation. The derangements in hemoglobin and platelet levels are more severe in TTP. The mainstay of treatment for TTP is plasmapheresis (plasma exchange), which can achieve remission of disease in 80% of patients. If plasmapheresis cannot be immediately performed, fresh frozen plasma (FFP) should be administered until apheresis can be performed.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
Which of the following conditions include indications for use of DDAVP in acute bleeding?
Correct
DDAVP stimulates the release of VWF, Factor VIII, and tissue factor. It may be used in bleeding episodes with mild Hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease. It does not affect Factor IX and so would not help in Hemophilia B. DDAVP does have beneficial effects on platelet function but would not help in the setting of thrombocytopenia.
Incorrect
DDAVP stimulates the release of VWF, Factor VIII, and tissue factor. It may be used in bleeding episodes with mild Hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease. It does not affect Factor IX and so would not help in Hemophilia B. DDAVP does have beneficial effects on platelet function but would not help in the setting of thrombocytopenia.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
The value of obtaining a D-dimer in a patient suspected of having DIC rests in its HIGH:
Correct
D-dimer has an NPV of 99% in the diagnosis of DIC. If this test is negative, the clinician can be nearly certain the patient does not have DIC.
Incorrect
D-dimer has an NPV of 99% in the diagnosis of DIC. If this test is negative, the clinician can be nearly certain the patient does not have DIC.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 45-year-old male with a history of Hodgkin’s lymphoma presents with a chief complaint of nausea/vomiting and muscle spasms. Physical exam reveals hyper-reflexia, and a positive Chvostek’s sign. The basic metabolic panel is significant for an elevated creatinine, and hyperkalemia. What lab test will most likely reveal the diagnosis?
Correct
This patient most likely has tumor lysis syndrome, characterized by hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia. The tetany (chvostek’s sign of tapping on facial nerve causing muscle twitching) and hyper-reflexia are likely secondary to the hypocalcemia. A uric acid level is the most important test to aid in this diagnosis. Treatment is generally supportive with fluids and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. While hypoparathyroidism can cause low calcium, it will not cause the renal insufficiency seen in tumor lysis syndrome. Neither a CBC nor a peripheral smear are likely to aid in this diagnosis.
Incorrect
This patient most likely has tumor lysis syndrome, characterized by hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia, and hypocalcemia. The tetany (chvostek’s sign of tapping on facial nerve causing muscle twitching) and hyper-reflexia are likely secondary to the hypocalcemia. A uric acid level is the most important test to aid in this diagnosis. Treatment is generally supportive with fluids and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. While hypoparathyroidism can cause low calcium, it will not cause the renal insufficiency seen in tumor lysis syndrome. Neither a CBC nor a peripheral smear are likely to aid in this diagnosis.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 2 year old child is brought in with a past medical history significant for fever and bloody diarrhea. Based on laboratory testing, a presumptive diagnosis of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is made. What is the most significant cause of potential morbidity and mortality in this patient?
Correct
The patient in this question has hemolytic uremic syndrome, of which the acute renal failure is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality. If anuric, these patients require plasma exchange therapy, dialysis, and/or monoclonal antibody treatment.
Incorrect
The patient in this question has hemolytic uremic syndrome, of which the acute renal failure is the leading cause of morbidity and mortality. If anuric, these patients require plasma exchange therapy, dialysis, and/or monoclonal antibody treatment.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 68-year-old male with a history of chronic myelogenous leukemia presents to the emergency department with severe shortness of breath. He is diaphoretic and hypoxic to 86% on room air. CBC reveals a white blood cell count of greater than 200,000, with >90% blasts. Hematology has been paged. Which of the following is the definitive next step in management for this patient?
Correct
This patient is most likely suffering from leukostasis secondary to blast crisis. The most important treatment in this case is immediate induction chemotherapy. If induction chemotherapy is unavailable, leukaphoresis and hydroxyurea may be used as temporizing measures but the definitive treatment is induction chemotherapy. IV rasburicase is the treatment for severe tumor lysis syndrome.
Incorrect
This patient is most likely suffering from leukostasis secondary to blast crisis. The most important treatment in this case is immediate induction chemotherapy. If induction chemotherapy is unavailable, leukaphoresis and hydroxyurea may be used as temporizing measures but the definitive treatment is induction chemotherapy. IV rasburicase is the treatment for severe tumor lysis syndrome.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 60-year-old female presents with a chief complaint of progressive fatigue and shortness of breath for 2 months. Electrolytes are grossly normal, and a CBC is significant for a WBC count of 55,000, hemoglobin of 6 g/dL, hematocrit of 18%, and a platelet count of 20,000. Physical exam reveals petechiae, but no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. Examination of the oropharynx is shown below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
This patient most likely has AML, which can present with the above gingival findings due to infiltration by tumor cells. Of note, the CBC can vary in patients with AML. Normocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia are common, however the white blood cell count may be low, normal, or elevated. Lymphadenopathy is rare in AML, in contrast to ALL in which it is a common presenting symptom. Definitive diagnosis of AML is by bone marrow biopsy.
Incorrect
This patient most likely has AML, which can present with the above gingival findings due to infiltration by tumor cells. Of note, the CBC can vary in patients with AML. Normocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia are common, however the white blood cell count may be low, normal, or elevated. Lymphadenopathy is rare in AML, in contrast to ALL in which it is a common presenting symptom. Definitive diagnosis of AML is by bone marrow biopsy.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 57-year-old woman with multiple myeloma presents with myalgias, abdominal pain, generalized weakness, and confusion. Laboratory testing demonstrates a calcium of 15.5 mg/dL. Aggressive hydration with normal saline is initiated. Which of the following medications is also indicated?
Correct
Hypercalcemia is generally a product of another underlying disorder and not a primary process in itself. Causes are grouped into four categories: malignancy (primary hematologic, metastases to the bone, or parathyroid producing tumor), hyperparathyroidism, increased intake (milk-alkali syndrome, vitamin D or A toxicity), and increased bone breakdown (immobilization, Paget disease). Clinically, patients experience lethargy, weakness, myalgias, constipation, and anorexia. The clinical presentation is often remembered by the mnemonic “bones, stones, groans and psychiatric overtones.” The first step in treatment is aggressive hydration. The addition of intravenous bisphosphonates (e.g. zoledronic acid) inhibits calcium release from bone. It is usually reserved for hypercalcemia associated with malignancy.
Incorrect
Hypercalcemia is generally a product of another underlying disorder and not a primary process in itself. Causes are grouped into four categories: malignancy (primary hematologic, metastases to the bone, or parathyroid producing tumor), hyperparathyroidism, increased intake (milk-alkali syndrome, vitamin D or A toxicity), and increased bone breakdown (immobilization, Paget disease). Clinically, patients experience lethargy, weakness, myalgias, constipation, and anorexia. The clinical presentation is often remembered by the mnemonic “bones, stones, groans and psychiatric overtones.” The first step in treatment is aggressive hydration. The addition of intravenous bisphosphonates (e.g. zoledronic acid) inhibits calcium release from bone. It is usually reserved for hypercalcemia associated with malignancy.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 40-year-old woman presents to the ED with confusion. Blood pressure is 130/80, HR 90, RR 20, 98% oxygen saturation on room air, and T 98.5 °F. On physical exam, she is alert and oriented to person and time. Scattered petechiae are also noted. Her complete blood count shows white blood cell count 10 x 109/L, hemoglobin of 7.5 g/dL, and platelet 15 x 109/L. Head CT was ordered and revealed no intracranial hemorrhage. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Correct
Plasma exchange is the treatment for patients presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Patients with this diagnosis have high mortality and should be treated as soon as possible. In a patient with altered mental status, severe thrombocytopenia, and neurologic symptoms, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura should be suspected. Patients commonly present with weakness, gastrointestinal symptoms, or neurologic symptoms. Neurologic manifestations may include transient neurologic deficits, confusion, coma, and headache. The classic presentation of fever, renal failure, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and severe neurologic symptoms only occurs in a small percentage of patients. The pathophysiology of TTP involves abnormal platelet aggregation secondary to an abnormality in ADAMTS13, which leads to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, characterized by schistocytes on blood smear, thrombocytopenia, and end-organ damage.
IV immunoglobulin (A) is the treatment for patients presenting with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP). Patients with ITP will have thrombocytopenia without any clear etiology and therefore should be a diagnosis of exclusion. Patients with ITP will not have evidence of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia or signs of end-organ damage. A lumbar puncture (B) is indicated in a patient suspected to have a CNS infection. In a patient with a normal white blood cell count and no fever, a CNS infection is less likely. Also, the chances of an epidural hematoma would be higher in a patient who has a platelet count of 15 x 109/L. The risks of a lumbar puncture outweigh the benefits in a patient with severe thrombocytopenia and low clinical suspicion for infection. A platelet transfusion (D) is unnecessary in a patient with significant thrombocytopenia unless there is evidence of active bleeding or a procedure is indicated and there is a risk of significant bleeding during the intervention. There is also a potential risk with platelet administration in patients with TTP, since platelet aggregation may worsen as the result of transfusion.
Incorrect
Plasma exchange is the treatment for patients presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP). Patients with this diagnosis have high mortality and should be treated as soon as possible. In a patient with altered mental status, severe thrombocytopenia, and neurologic symptoms, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura should be suspected. Patients commonly present with weakness, gastrointestinal symptoms, or neurologic symptoms. Neurologic manifestations may include transient neurologic deficits, confusion, coma, and headache. The classic presentation of fever, renal failure, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and severe neurologic symptoms only occurs in a small percentage of patients. The pathophysiology of TTP involves abnormal platelet aggregation secondary to an abnormality in ADAMTS13, which leads to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, characterized by schistocytes on blood smear, thrombocytopenia, and end-organ damage.
IV immunoglobulin (A) is the treatment for patients presenting with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP). Patients with ITP will have thrombocytopenia without any clear etiology and therefore should be a diagnosis of exclusion. Patients with ITP will not have evidence of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia or signs of end-organ damage. A lumbar puncture (B) is indicated in a patient suspected to have a CNS infection. In a patient with a normal white blood cell count and no fever, a CNS infection is less likely. Also, the chances of an epidural hematoma would be higher in a patient who has a platelet count of 15 x 109/L. The risks of a lumbar puncture outweigh the benefits in a patient with severe thrombocytopenia and low clinical suspicion for infection. A platelet transfusion (D) is unnecessary in a patient with significant thrombocytopenia unless there is evidence of active bleeding or a procedure is indicated and there is a risk of significant bleeding during the intervention. There is also a potential risk with platelet administration in patients with TTP, since platelet aggregation may worsen as the result of transfusion.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Which of the following well appearing patients with a temperature of greater than 38.4oC requires prompt evaluation and intravenous antibiotic therapy within one hour of arrival to the emergency department?
Correct
Severe neutropenia is defined as having an absolute neutrophil count less than 500 cells/microL which increases the risk of spontaneous serious bacterial infection. Neutropenia can be inherited or more usually acquired while on chemotherapy. Viral infections can cause transient neutropenia and if discovered incidentally further workup may be indicated. Patients with known severe neutropenia such as a patient with a neutrophil count less than 500 cells/microL in the last week who presents to the emergency department with a fever should be immediately evaluated and started on broad–spectrum antibiotics, even if well appearing. A delay of more than 60 minutes in antibiotic administration to patients with severe neutropenia is associated with an increase in morbidity, mortality, and length of stay.
Incorrect
Severe neutropenia is defined as having an absolute neutrophil count less than 500 cells/microL which increases the risk of spontaneous serious bacterial infection. Neutropenia can be inherited or more usually acquired while on chemotherapy. Viral infections can cause transient neutropenia and if discovered incidentally further workup may be indicated. Patients with known severe neutropenia such as a patient with a neutrophil count less than 500 cells/microL in the last week who presents to the emergency department with a fever should be immediately evaluated and started on broad–spectrum antibiotics, even if well appearing. A delay of more than 60 minutes in antibiotic administration to patients with severe neutropenia is associated with an increase in morbidity, mortality, and length of stay.
NOTE:Next week (March 21st) is Critical Care Conference. The following week will be Hematology. For the conference, study up on resus ultrasound (RUSH exam, FAST, cardiac, etc.), Sepsis (just went over this!), and pediatric resus (Peds EM Playbook), as this is all usually covered.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 23-year-old man with sickle cell disease presents with chest pain, cough, and fever. His vitals are HR 132, RR 28, BP 110/65, and T 101.1°F. His chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe infiltrate. Hemoglobin is 8 g/dL. Which of the following is the first line management that is most likely indicated?
Correct
This patient with sickle cell disease (SCD) presents with acute chest syndrome requiring broad-spectrum antibioticsand intensive care unit (ICU) admission. SCD is a genetically determined disease due to an abnormal allele for hemoglobin beta chains. The end result of this abnormality is a sickled cell that is less deformable and can cause increased viscosity and sludging of the blood. Additionally, cells are sequestered in the spleen and the liver leading to destruction. Patients experience chronic hemolysis, vaso-occlusive events, thrombosis and ultimately, end organ injury. Splenic autoinfarction occurs early in life and makes patients more susceptible to encapsulated organisms such asStreptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitides. Acute chest syndrome is the leading cause of death in SCD and is defined as fever, chest pain, and the presence of new pulmonary infiltrates. Management consists of supportive care, supplemental oxygen if needed, broad spectrum antibiotics, andadmission to the ICU.
Incorrect
This patient with sickle cell disease (SCD) presents with acute chest syndrome requiring broad-spectrum antibioticsand intensive care unit (ICU) admission. SCD is a genetically determined disease due to an abnormal allele for hemoglobin beta chains. The end result of this abnormality is a sickled cell that is less deformable and can cause increased viscosity and sludging of the blood. Additionally, cells are sequestered in the spleen and the liver leading to destruction. Patients experience chronic hemolysis, vaso-occlusive events, thrombosis and ultimately, end organ injury. Splenic autoinfarction occurs early in life and makes patients more susceptible to encapsulated organisms such asStreptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae and Neisseria meningitides. Acute chest syndrome is the leading cause of death in SCD and is defined as fever, chest pain, and the presence of new pulmonary infiltrates. Management consists of supportive care, supplemental oxygen if needed, broad spectrum antibiotics, andadmission to the ICU.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 35 year old male with history of sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe total body pain. Vital signs are notable for HR of 115. On exam, the patient is diffusely tender to palpation in the chest and bilateral lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Correct
The patient in the question stem is suffering from vasoocculsive crisis, or pain crisis of the bones. In adults, this is the most common in the chest, long bones, and back. The mainstay of treatment is narcotics and IV fluids.
Incorrect
The patient in the question stem is suffering from vasoocculsive crisis, or pain crisis of the bones. In adults, this is the most common in the chest, long bones, and back. The mainstay of treatment is narcotics and IV fluids.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 9-year-old African American boy with sickle cell disease and multiple previous admissions for pain crises, is brought in by parents for weakness that started 30 minutes ago. He has not had any recent illnesses. On exam, he has flaccid paralysis on right upper and lower extremities, with decreased light-touch sensation. Bedside hemoglobin is 9.0g/dL. Which of the following is the definitive management for this patient?
Correct
Acute cerebrovascular accident is a complication in sickle cell patients due to intravascular sickling and vasoocclusion. It typically manifests as ischemic changes of large intracranial arteries. However, in older patients, hemorrhagic changes can be seen as arterial walls have been weakened from prior infarcts. The ideal treatment is exchange transfusion; it is the most effective method to reduce the percentage of sickled hemoglobin and to reduce intravascular sickling and vasoocclusion. Exchange transfusion also helps minimize the risk of transfusion-associated circulatory overload and associated pulmonary edema, in addition to reduced risk of stroke recurrence. Unfortunately, there are no published evidence regarding the safety and efficacy of thrombolytics in sickle cell patients with acute ischemic strokes. If exchange transfusion is available, this option should be pursued first.
Incorrect
Acute cerebrovascular accident is a complication in sickle cell patients due to intravascular sickling and vasoocclusion. It typically manifests as ischemic changes of large intracranial arteries. However, in older patients, hemorrhagic changes can be seen as arterial walls have been weakened from prior infarcts. The ideal treatment is exchange transfusion; it is the most effective method to reduce the percentage of sickled hemoglobin and to reduce intravascular sickling and vasoocclusion. Exchange transfusion also helps minimize the risk of transfusion-associated circulatory overload and associated pulmonary edema, in addition to reduced risk of stroke recurrence. Unfortunately, there are no published evidence regarding the safety and efficacy of thrombolytics in sickle cell patients with acute ischemic strokes. If exchange transfusion is available, this option should be pursued first.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 19-year old male with a history of sickle cell disease presents with bilateral proximal arm and leg pain with low back pain for one day. He also endorses rhinorrhea. He has been compliant with his folate and hydroxyurea, but ran out of his prescription pain medications. Vital signs are: BP 143/82, P 99, RR 14, O2Sat 99% room air, T 99.0F (37.2C). Physical exam is unremarkable, with clear lungs, benign abdomen, and moist mucous membranes. His extremities and back are nontender with no overlying skin changes. Neurologic exam is benign. Bedside hemoglobin is 8.8 g/dL. Medical records indicate that his baseline hemoglobin is 9.0 g/dL. Which of the following is the next best step in managing this patient?
Correct
This patient is likely suffering a vasoocclusive pain episode, triggered by a likely viral upper respiratory infection. The provided information does not suggest any life-threatening complications (acute stroke, acute chest syndrome, acute bacterial infection, aplastic crisis, symptomatic anemia) that would require further blood tests or imaging at this time.
For patients who are hypovolemic, IV normal saline resuscitation would be indicated. However, there is no indication in this patient that he is dehydrated. If pain is not adequately controlled with initial PO/IM, then IV pain medication may be attempted.
Incorrect
This patient is likely suffering a vasoocclusive pain episode, triggered by a likely viral upper respiratory infection. The provided information does not suggest any life-threatening complications (acute stroke, acute chest syndrome, acute bacterial infection, aplastic crisis, symptomatic anemia) that would require further blood tests or imaging at this time.
For patients who are hypovolemic, IV normal saline resuscitation would be indicated. However, there is no indication in this patient that he is dehydrated. If pain is not adequately controlled with initial PO/IM, then IV pain medication may be attempted.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
A 21-year-old man with a history of sickle cell disease, presents with generalized body pain, chest pain, coughing, and shortness of breath for 2 days. Vital signs are: BP 109/73, P 132, T 103.3F (39.6C), RR 23, O2Sat 88% room air. Your physical examination notes diffuse tenderness to palpation across the chest and extremities, but no rashes. You note crackles to the right mid-lung zone. Chest xray is shown. Intravenous fluid resuscitation, pain medication, and oxygen are administered, with oxygen saturation improving to 97% on 10L facemask. Bedside hemoglobin is 8.0g/dL. He is able to tolerate oral medications and food. Which of the following is the next best step in management of this patient?
Correct
Acute chest syndrome is the leading cause of death in adult sickle cell patients. It is a syndrome that includes pneumonia, pulmonary infarction, pulmonary embolism, bone marrow infarction, and fat emboli. To make the diagnosis, patient must have consolidation or infiltrate on CXR, and at least 1 of the following symptoms: fever >38.5°C, chest pain, tachypnea, cough, wheezing, or PaO2 <60mmHg. Treatment includes pain control, fluid hydration, antibiotics to cover for both typical and atypical organisms, and oxygen. Bronchodilators may be used, especially if patients already have underlying reactive airway diseases. Glucocorticoids should be avoided as studies have shown rebound vasoocclusionand pain crises following the cessation of steroids.
Although there is limited evidence regarding transfusion therapy in acute chest syndrome, transfusion is considered a mainstay therapy for acute chest syndrome. Some guidelines suggest simple blood transfusion in mild-moderate acute chest syndrome cases, while recommending exchange transfusion in moderate-severe cases.
Mild acute chest syndrome criteria include: O2Sat >90% on room air; segmental/lobar infiltrates involving no more than 1 lobe on CXR; and response to simple transfusion of no more than 2units RBC.
Moderate acute chest syndrome criteria include: O2Sat at least 85% on room air; segmental/lobar infiltrates involving no more than 2 lobes on CXR; and response to transfusion of 3 or more units RBC.
Severe acute chest syndrome criteria include: respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation; O2Sat <85% on room air; segmental/lobar infiltrates involving at least 3 lobes on CXR.
Very severe acute chest syndrome criteria include: presence of ARDS or life-threatening lung failure.
Given the initial transcutaneous oxygen saturation 88% on room air, this patient is classified as moderate acute chest syndrome. Hematology should be consulted for transfusion therapy.
Incorrect
Acute chest syndrome is the leading cause of death in adult sickle cell patients. It is a syndrome that includes pneumonia, pulmonary infarction, pulmonary embolism, bone marrow infarction, and fat emboli. To make the diagnosis, patient must have consolidation or infiltrate on CXR, and at least 1 of the following symptoms: fever >38.5°C, chest pain, tachypnea, cough, wheezing, or PaO2 <60mmHg. Treatment includes pain control, fluid hydration, antibiotics to cover for both typical and atypical organisms, and oxygen. Bronchodilators may be used, especially if patients already have underlying reactive airway diseases. Glucocorticoids should be avoided as studies have shown rebound vasoocclusionand pain crises following the cessation of steroids.
Although there is limited evidence regarding transfusion therapy in acute chest syndrome, transfusion is considered a mainstay therapy for acute chest syndrome. Some guidelines suggest simple blood transfusion in mild-moderate acute chest syndrome cases, while recommending exchange transfusion in moderate-severe cases.
Mild acute chest syndrome criteria include: O2Sat >90% on room air; segmental/lobar infiltrates involving no more than 1 lobe on CXR; and response to simple transfusion of no more than 2units RBC.
Moderate acute chest syndrome criteria include: O2Sat at least 85% on room air; segmental/lobar infiltrates involving no more than 2 lobes on CXR; and response to transfusion of 3 or more units RBC.
Severe acute chest syndrome criteria include: respiratory failure requiring mechanical ventilation; O2Sat <85% on room air; segmental/lobar infiltrates involving at least 3 lobes on CXR.
Very severe acute chest syndrome criteria include: presence of ARDS or life-threatening lung failure.
Given the initial transcutaneous oxygen saturation 88% on room air, this patient is classified as moderate acute chest syndrome. Hematology should be consulted for transfusion therapy.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A one year old patient is brought into the emergency department by family for swollen and painful hands and feet. Vital signs are within normal limits, and patient is afebrile. The mother denies history of trauma. On exam, the dorsum of the hands and feet are noted to be diffusely swollen and tender, particularly along the digits. The mother notes that there is a strong family history of sickle cell disease. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Acute dactylitis is the most common presenting symptom for patients with sickle cell disease. It most common occurs in patients 6-18 months of age, and represents bone infarction. It is not an infection.
Incorrect
Acute dactylitis is the most common presenting symptom for patients with sickle cell disease. It most common occurs in patients 6-18 months of age, and represents bone infarction. It is not an infection.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
The genotype of SCD associated with the high- est risk for avascular necrosis is:
Correct
The genotype HbSC is associated with a higher level of total hemoglobin and a less-severe course; however, these patients are at greater risk for avascular joint necrosis. In patients with HbS beta thalassemia, the severity of disease is determined by the severity of the thalassemia mutation. Patients with mild HbS beta+ thalassemia will have near-normal lives, whereas the natural history of HbS beta0 thalassemia is similar to HbSS.
Incorrect
The genotype HbSC is associated with a higher level of total hemoglobin and a less-severe course; however, these patients are at greater risk for avascular joint necrosis. In patients with HbS beta thalassemia, the severity of disease is determined by the severity of the thalassemia mutation. Patients with mild HbS beta+ thalassemia will have near-normal lives, whereas the natural history of HbS beta0 thalassemia is similar to HbSS.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
In patients admitted for VOC, which treatment is indicated to prevent the development of acute chest syndrome?
Correct
A randomized trial of 29 patients with VOC found that the addition of incentive spirometry during hospitalization for VOC was associated with a 37% decrease
in the incidence of pulmonary in infiltrates and atelectasis. Incentive spirometry should be included in the treatment protocol for all SCD patients admitted for VOC. Acute chest syndrome typically develops during inpatient admissions for VOC and pulmonary infiltrate is a clinical finding required for the diagnosis of acute chest syndrome. This low-risk intervention decreases the incidence of pulmonary infiltrates. In vitro and in vivo studies have shown that lowering of serum osmolality with hypotonic fluid can reduce erythrocyte sickling. Excess IV fluids have been anecdotally associated with the development of atelectasis. A prospective observational cohort of 3751 patients with SCD identified atelectasis as a risk factor for the development of acute chest syndrome.
Incorrect
A randomized trial of 29 patients with VOC found that the addition of incentive spirometry during hospitalization for VOC was associated with a 37% decrease
in the incidence of pulmonary in infiltrates and atelectasis. Incentive spirometry should be included in the treatment protocol for all SCD patients admitted for VOC. Acute chest syndrome typically develops during inpatient admissions for VOC and pulmonary infiltrate is a clinical finding required for the diagnosis of acute chest syndrome. This low-risk intervention decreases the incidence of pulmonary infiltrates. In vitro and in vivo studies have shown that lowering of serum osmolality with hypotonic fluid can reduce erythrocyte sickling. Excess IV fluids have been anecdotally associated with the development of atelectasis. A prospective observational cohort of 3751 patients with SCD identified atelectasis as a risk factor for the development of acute chest syndrome.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 28-year-old man presents with a one-day history of rectal bleeding. In the ED, he is hypotensive, thrombocytopenic, and is found to be passing melena. He receives a transfusion of platelets and packed red blood cells as part of his resuscitation. Twenty minutes after the start of his platelet transfusion, his BP is 90 mm Hg systolic, he becomes dyspneic, and his oxygen saturation drops from 99% on room air to 91% on 2L of oxygen supplementation. On exam, you note rales at the lung apices and that he is using accessory muscles to breathe. His chest radiograph shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates. What is the most likely cause of this complication?
Correct
This patient is most likely suffering from transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), one of the leading causes of transfusion-related mortality. It is most closely associated with platelet and fresh frozen plasma transfusions, though cases have been reported with packed red blood cells since there is some residual plasma in the packed cells. Symptoms begin abruptly during transfusion or within six hours and resemble adult respiratory distress syndrome with noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, dyspnea, hypoxemia, and bilateral infiltrates on chest radiograph. It is thought to be caused by granulocyte recruitment and degranulation. As with all transfusion-associated complications, the transfusion should be stopped immediately and supportive care instituted. Most cases resolve spontaneously.
ABO incompatibility (A) causes intravascular hemolysis of transfused red blood cells, producing hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria. The onset is immediate. Symptoms include fever, chills, headache, nausea, vomiting, a sensation of chest restriction, and severe joint pain. ABO incompatibility is most often due to human error. An allergic transfusion reaction (B) can vary in severity from simple pruritus with urticaria to anaphylaxis with wheezing and bronchospasm. This patient’s respiratory symptoms are not bronchospastic in nature. Although TRALI can be confused with acute transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) (C), TRALI is associated with hypotension, whereas TACO is associated with a rapid rise in blood pressure.
Incorrect
This patient is most likely suffering from transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), one of the leading causes of transfusion-related mortality. It is most closely associated with platelet and fresh frozen plasma transfusions, though cases have been reported with packed red blood cells since there is some residual plasma in the packed cells. Symptoms begin abruptly during transfusion or within six hours and resemble adult respiratory distress syndrome with noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, dyspnea, hypoxemia, and bilateral infiltrates on chest radiograph. It is thought to be caused by granulocyte recruitment and degranulation. As with all transfusion-associated complications, the transfusion should be stopped immediately and supportive care instituted. Most cases resolve spontaneously.
ABO incompatibility (A) causes intravascular hemolysis of transfused red blood cells, producing hemoglobinemia and hemoglobinuria. The onset is immediate. Symptoms include fever, chills, headache, nausea, vomiting, a sensation of chest restriction, and severe joint pain. ABO incompatibility is most often due to human error. An allergic transfusion reaction (B) can vary in severity from simple pruritus with urticaria to anaphylaxis with wheezing and bronchospasm. This patient’s respiratory symptoms are not bronchospastic in nature. Although TRALI can be confused with acute transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) (C), TRALI is associated with hypotension, whereas TACO is associated with a rapid rise in blood pressure.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
A 39-year-old man presents to the emergency department for fatigue and a rash. He was treated with chloramphenicol for a recent zoonotic infection. His vital signs are T 99°F, P 105 beats/minute, RR 12 breaths/minute, BP 139/85 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 100% on room air. He has petechiae on his trunk and extremities. Laboratory analysis reveals a hemoglobin of 6.8 g/dL, white blood cell count 0.9 cells/mcL, platelets 20 000 cells/mcL, and reticulocyte count 0.2%. What is the most likely pathophysiology responsible for the patient’s findings?
Correct
Pancytopenia (a reduction in all blood cell lines: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets) with a low reticulocyte count is suggestive of aplastic anemia. The use of medications known to cause bone marrow suppression further suggests drug-induced aplastic anemia. Bone marrow generates pluripotent stem cells that differentiate into red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes). Immature red blood cells are called reticulocytes. When red blood cell production is increased, the erythrocyte count becomes elevated. If this level is reduced, concern is raised about the integrity of bone marrow stem cell production. When red blood cell counts are low (anemia), the hormone erythropoietin is released to accelerate red cell production. Aplastic anemia is a rare type of anemia that is caused by drugs or chemicals in 50% of cases. Drugs that suppress bone marrow production include chloramphenicol, anticonvulsants (e.g., carbamazepine), insecticides, sulfonamides, and gold. Medical conditions associated with aplastic anemia include viral hepatitis, radiation, pregnancy, and autoimmune diseases. Aplasia may affect a single cell line (e.g., pure red cell aplasia) or all cell lines. Symptoms of aplastic anemia may include fatigue, malaise, infection (from neutropenia), or mucosal bleeding (from thrombocytopenia). Bone marrow analysis is needed for definitive diagnosis.
Disseminated bacteremia (A) with certain organisms (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae) may present with purpura or petechiae. However, these patients are septic with fever, hypotension, lactic acidosis, and usually normal or elevated white blood cell counts and normal red blood cell counts. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (B) is a consumptive coagulopathy with multiple etiologies (e.g., sepsis, trauma, pregnancy, cancer) that can also present with excessive bleeding and petechiae. Thrombocytopenia and schistocytes are characteristic, as well as abnormal coagulation tests. Red blood cell and white blood cell lines are typically unaffected. A type I hypersensitivity reaction (D) is an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated process that results in a massive, abrupt immune response affecting multiple organ systems (e.g., skin, respiratory, circulatory). Anaphylaxis is an example.
Incorrect
Pancytopenia (a reduction in all blood cell lines: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets) with a low reticulocyte count is suggestive of aplastic anemia. The use of medications known to cause bone marrow suppression further suggests drug-induced aplastic anemia. Bone marrow generates pluripotent stem cells that differentiate into red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes). Immature red blood cells are called reticulocytes. When red blood cell production is increased, the erythrocyte count becomes elevated. If this level is reduced, concern is raised about the integrity of bone marrow stem cell production. When red blood cell counts are low (anemia), the hormone erythropoietin is released to accelerate red cell production. Aplastic anemia is a rare type of anemia that is caused by drugs or chemicals in 50% of cases. Drugs that suppress bone marrow production include chloramphenicol, anticonvulsants (e.g., carbamazepine), insecticides, sulfonamides, and gold. Medical conditions associated with aplastic anemia include viral hepatitis, radiation, pregnancy, and autoimmune diseases. Aplasia may affect a single cell line (e.g., pure red cell aplasia) or all cell lines. Symptoms of aplastic anemia may include fatigue, malaise, infection (from neutropenia), or mucosal bleeding (from thrombocytopenia). Bone marrow analysis is needed for definitive diagnosis.
Disseminated bacteremia (A) with certain organisms (e.g., Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae) may present with purpura or petechiae. However, these patients are septic with fever, hypotension, lactic acidosis, and usually normal or elevated white blood cell counts and normal red blood cell counts. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (B) is a consumptive coagulopathy with multiple etiologies (e.g., sepsis, trauma, pregnancy, cancer) that can also present with excessive bleeding and petechiae. Thrombocytopenia and schistocytes are characteristic, as well as abnormal coagulation tests. Red blood cell and white blood cell lines are typically unaffected. A type I hypersensitivity reaction (D) is an immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated process that results in a massive, abrupt immune response affecting multiple organ systems (e.g., skin, respiratory, circulatory). Anaphylaxis is an example.
This marks the beginning of the Hematology and Oncology Block, the first of the two weeks will be Hematology. We will start conference with a quiz review, followed by Dr. Vincent’s F/U rounds, followed by FLIP by the Dr. Bajkowski and Dr. Aquino. We will then wrap up with a resident only meeting.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
22 year old male presents with altered mental status. He has a nonblanching rash shown below. Vital signs are HR 114, BP 100/89, RR 16, Temp 40.8 C. He is wearing sunglasses in the ER and complains about a headache. What is the next step in his care?
Correct
Up to 30% of meningococcemia patients will present with this picture and no immediate evidence of meningitis or sepsis.
Antibiotics should not be held while waiting for a lumbar puncture. There have been multiple studies looking at antibiotics effects of lumbar puncture results. Here is a link to 3 articles looking at this.
Dexamethasone should also be started as it decreases neurological complications from step pneumoniae meningitis.
Incorrect
Up to 30% of meningococcemia patients will present with this picture and no immediate evidence of meningitis or sepsis.
Antibiotics should not be held while waiting for a lumbar puncture. There have been multiple studies looking at antibiotics effects of lumbar puncture results. Here is a link to 3 articles looking at this.
Dexamethasone should also be started as it decreases neurological complications from step pneumoniae meningitis.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 31-year-old man presents with double vision and difficulty swallowing. This all started a few days ago after he ate a bottle of home canned peaches. He has no medical history and takes no medication. Your examination is remarkable for bilateral ptosis, mildly dilated pupils, dry mucous membranes, difficulty swallowing, and weakness of the trapezius and deltoid muscles. Bowel sounds are absent. Vital signs are temperature 36. 3° C, heart rate 93 beats/minute, blood pressure 84/63 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 20 breaths/minute. Which of the following is indicated?
Correct
Botulism presents as a descending paralysis/anticholinergic syndrome. Autonomic dysfunction with orthostatic hypotension is common. Ileus and urinary retention may occur. Antitoxin, intensive care unit admission, and early intubation are often indicated.
Incorrect
Botulism presents as a descending paralysis/anticholinergic syndrome. Autonomic dysfunction with orthostatic hypotension is common. Ileus and urinary retention may occur. Antitoxin, intensive care unit admission, and early intubation are often indicated.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 62-year-old male farmer with no medical problems and unknown vaccination status presents with leg pain and muscle spasms. He reports moderate to severe pain and muscle spasms in the calf that have occurred and worsened during 3 days. Two weeks prior, he suffered a puncture wound to his ankle just above his boot top with a piece of metal. Examination is remarkable for a heart rate of 115 beats/minute, blood pressure of 170/110 mm Hg, and a healing clean wound above the medial malleolus with no evidence of active infection. The calf is in active spasm with some increased tone in the peroneal musculature also. Which is the next step in the patients treatment?
Correct
Localized tetanus reflects a local neuromuscular process with pain and spasm. It is likely due to a partial immunity. Immune globulin is indicated. Although mortality is lower, it can progress to generalized tetanus, and admission is warranted.
HTIG prophylaxis (250 units IM) is recommended for unimmunized and underimmunized patients with wounds at high risk for tetanus (>6 hours old, >1 cm deep, contaminated, stellate, denervated, ischemic, infected).27 When tetanus toxoid and HTIG are given concurrently, separate injection sites should be used. The only contraindication to tetanus and diphtheria toxoids is a history of a neurologic or severe hypersensitivity reaction to a previous dose. Adverse reactions to tetanus toxoid and tetanus-diphtheria toxoids occur commonly and may be the result of the preservative thimerosal. The most common side effects are minor: local swelling, pain, erythema, pruritus, fever, nausea, vomiting, malaise, and nonspecific rash.
Incorrect
Localized tetanus reflects a local neuromuscular process with pain and spasm. It is likely due to a partial immunity. Immune globulin is indicated. Although mortality is lower, it can progress to generalized tetanus, and admission is warranted.
HTIG prophylaxis (250 units IM) is recommended for unimmunized and underimmunized patients with wounds at high risk for tetanus (>6 hours old, >1 cm deep, contaminated, stellate, denervated, ischemic, infected).27 When tetanus toxoid and HTIG are given concurrently, separate injection sites should be used. The only contraindication to tetanus and diphtheria toxoids is a history of a neurologic or severe hypersensitivity reaction to a previous dose. Adverse reactions to tetanus toxoid and tetanus-diphtheria toxoids occur commonly and may be the result of the preservative thimerosal. The most common side effects are minor: local swelling, pain, erythema, pruritus, fever, nausea, vomiting, malaise, and nonspecific rash.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 26-year-old woman presents two days after an operation for recurrent sinusitis. Her husband states that she has been confused since she got “the flu” yesterday. Her vitals are temperature 39.5°C, HR 115, BP 95/70, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. On exam, she is disoriented and has a diffusely hyperemic, blanching rash. She has a surgical dressing covering her nose. What is the next step in management?
Correct
The surgical dressing must be removed to ensure there is no nasal packing or other foreign body present that could serve as a precipitant of toxic shock syndrome (fever, hypotension, diffuse erythroderma, multisystem organ dysfunction). Toxic shock syndrome is commonly associated with postsurgical dressings as well as vaginal foreign bodies (classically, extended-use tampons). Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) producing strains of S. aureuscause the infection, with the toxin serving as a superantigen that leads to overstimulation of T-lymphocytes and subsequent massive, unregulated cytokine release. Patients often report a prodrome of flu-like symptoms including headache, myalgias, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Antibiotics (A) prevent recurrence but do not affect the outcome of the acute illness. However, starting an antistaphylococcal antibiotic early is standard practice. There is evidence that the addition of clindamycin or linezolid offers an additional benefit of decreasing production of TSST-1. A wound culture (C) has limited utility in this scenario. A blood culture may be useful but should be obtained after the nidus of infection is removed. All diagnostic testing, including imaging (B), should be performed after searching for and removing the likely source of toxin.
Incorrect
The surgical dressing must be removed to ensure there is no nasal packing or other foreign body present that could serve as a precipitant of toxic shock syndrome (fever, hypotension, diffuse erythroderma, multisystem organ dysfunction). Toxic shock syndrome is commonly associated with postsurgical dressings as well as vaginal foreign bodies (classically, extended-use tampons). Toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) producing strains of S. aureuscause the infection, with the toxin serving as a superantigen that leads to overstimulation of T-lymphocytes and subsequent massive, unregulated cytokine release. Patients often report a prodrome of flu-like symptoms including headache, myalgias, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Antibiotics (A) prevent recurrence but do not affect the outcome of the acute illness. However, starting an antistaphylococcal antibiotic early is standard practice. There is evidence that the addition of clindamycin or linezolid offers an additional benefit of decreasing production of TSST-1. A wound culture (C) has limited utility in this scenario. A blood culture may be useful but should be obtained after the nidus of infection is removed. All diagnostic testing, including imaging (B), should be performed after searching for and removing the likely source of toxin.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
An 85-year-old man is brought to the emergency department (ED) by his daughter, who says that he has had a fever and has been eating less than normal for 2 days. The patient has a history of hypertension and severe dementia. He can provide no useful information. His present temperature was recorded by the triage nurse to be 38. 5° C. The remainder of his vital signs are within normal limits. The only abnormal findings on physical examination are slightly dry mucous membranes, confusion, and poor social interaction. The daughter confirms his mental status to be at baseline. Which of the following are the two most important ancillary tests to obtain in this patient?
Correct
The two most important ancillary tests in the evaluation of fever in the adult patient, and especially in elder patients who frequently have atypical presentations, are urinalysis and chest radiography. Chest radiographs are often helpful in the diagnosis of pulmonary infection but may be difficult to interpret in the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure (CHF), or other chronic lung disease. The urinalysis, although not foolproof, is highly accurate for urinary tract infection, especially in men. Although the white blood cell count is almost universally used in the evaluation of febrile patients, it lacks sensitivity and specificity to be of discriminatory value. Cultures are ordered in selected patients; however, the delay in obtaining results precludes any influence in emergency evaluation and treatment. Other tests that have relevance in select patients with fever include Gram’s stain, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, thyroid function studies, ultrasonography, and computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen or head.
Incorrect
The two most important ancillary tests in the evaluation of fever in the adult patient, and especially in elder patients who frequently have atypical presentations, are urinalysis and chest radiography. Chest radiographs are often helpful in the diagnosis of pulmonary infection but may be difficult to interpret in the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure (CHF), or other chronic lung disease. The urinalysis, although not foolproof, is highly accurate for urinary tract infection, especially in men. Although the white blood cell count is almost universally used in the evaluation of febrile patients, it lacks sensitivity and specificity to be of discriminatory value. Cultures are ordered in selected patients; however, the delay in obtaining results precludes any influence in emergency evaluation and treatment. Other tests that have relevance in select patients with fever include Gram’s stain, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, thyroid function studies, ultrasonography, and computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen or head.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 65-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with a painful area of erythema on his anterior thigh which has been rapidly expanding over the last few hours. He is diagnosed with necrotizing fasciitis and taken to the operating room. Which of the following is most likely to be seen on tissue culture?
Correct
Most cases of necrotizing fasciitis are caused by polymicrobial infection with gram-negative, gram-positive, andanaerobic bacteria. Commonly identified organisms include S. aureus, beta-hemolytic streptococci, enterococci, enterobacteria, and anerobes such as Bacteroides and Clostridium species. Necrotizing fasciitis is characterized by deep tissue infection involving subcutaneous fat, fascia, and muscle layers, as opposed to cellulitis, where infection does not extend past the dermal layer. Infection may begin by direct bacterial invasion of subcutaneous tissue via breaks in the skin from an abscess or wound, or via spread from a perforated viscous such as colon, rectum, or anus. The hallmark of necrotizing fasciitis is pain out of proportion to physical exam. Early recognition is critical as necrotizing fasciitis is rapidly progressive and has a high mortality rate. General surgery should be consulted as soon as necrotizing fasciitis is suspected. It is treated with surgical debridement, intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics, and hemodynamic support.
Necrotizing fasciitis of the perineal, perianal, or scrotal is called Fournier’s gangrene.
Incorrect
Most cases of necrotizing fasciitis are caused by polymicrobial infection with gram-negative, gram-positive, andanaerobic bacteria. Commonly identified organisms include S. aureus, beta-hemolytic streptococci, enterococci, enterobacteria, and anerobes such as Bacteroides and Clostridium species. Necrotizing fasciitis is characterized by deep tissue infection involving subcutaneous fat, fascia, and muscle layers, as opposed to cellulitis, where infection does not extend past the dermal layer. Infection may begin by direct bacterial invasion of subcutaneous tissue via breaks in the skin from an abscess or wound, or via spread from a perforated viscous such as colon, rectum, or anus. The hallmark of necrotizing fasciitis is pain out of proportion to physical exam. Early recognition is critical as necrotizing fasciitis is rapidly progressive and has a high mortality rate. General surgery should be consulted as soon as necrotizing fasciitis is suspected. It is treated with surgical debridement, intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics, and hemodynamic support.
Necrotizing fasciitis of the perineal, perianal, or scrotal is called Fournier’s gangrene.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Which of the following statements regarding septic shock is TRUE?
Correct
Sepsis affects both myocardial function and peripheral vascular tone. The systemic vascular resistance is usually markedly depressed. Cardiac output is generally increased because of a compensatory tachycardia that can at least partially overcome the ventricular dilation and depressed ejection fraction. The myocardial effects are typically reversible.
Incorrect
Sepsis affects both myocardial function and peripheral vascular tone. The systemic vascular resistance is usually markedly depressed. Cardiac output is generally increased because of a compensatory tachycardia that can at least partially overcome the ventricular dilation and depressed ejection fraction. The myocardial effects are typically reversible.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 2-day-old boy presents to the ED with fever for the past four hours. His birth history includes a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery at term. Parents report noticing that the child “felt warm,” and that he was having copious nasal secretions while feeding. On physical examination, the child appears lethargic, has mottled extremities, and is hot to the touch. Breath sounds are clear bilaterally and there are no rashes. His vital signs are T 102.9°F, BP 74/48 mm Hg, HR 170 beats per minute, and RR 40 breaths per minute. Which of the following groupings of organisms should covered by your antibiotic choices when treating this febrile neonate?
Correct
The febrile neonate is a child 28 days and younger who presents with a fever. These children are at very high risk of serious bacterial infections including urinary tract infection, pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia. Risk factors for serious bacterial infection in a neonate include prematurity, low birth weight, premature or prolonged rupture of membranes, meconium aspiration, or maternal group B streptococcus infection. The evaluation of a neonate with a fever includes CBC, urinalysis, blood culture, urine culture, and a lumbar puncture in order to obtain CSF for cell count, gram stain, and culture. If the child has respiratory symptoms, a chest X-ray should be performed. If the child has diarrhea, stool testing should also be performed. The most common pathogens involved in serious bacterial infections, including meningitis and bacteremia, in neonates are Listeria monocytogenes, Group B streptococcus, and Escherichia coli. These children can become critically ill very rapidly; therefore, initial management should include a fluid bolus of 20 mL/kg and broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover for the most common pathogens in this age group. The most appropriate antibiotics to use in neonates with a fever are ampicillin and cefotaxime. Ampicillin will cover Listeria monocytogenes while cefotaxime will cover Group B streptococcus and Escherichia coli. If there is a history of maternal infection with herpes simplex virus, acyclovir should be added to the empiric broad-spectrum treatment. These patients universally need to be admitted to the hospital for IV antibiotics and observation until all cultures have returned.
Incorrect
The febrile neonate is a child 28 days and younger who presents with a fever. These children are at very high risk of serious bacterial infections including urinary tract infection, pneumonia, meningitis, and bacteremia. Risk factors for serious bacterial infection in a neonate include prematurity, low birth weight, premature or prolonged rupture of membranes, meconium aspiration, or maternal group B streptococcus infection. The evaluation of a neonate with a fever includes CBC, urinalysis, blood culture, urine culture, and a lumbar puncture in order to obtain CSF for cell count, gram stain, and culture. If the child has respiratory symptoms, a chest X-ray should be performed. If the child has diarrhea, stool testing should also be performed. The most common pathogens involved in serious bacterial infections, including meningitis and bacteremia, in neonates are Listeria monocytogenes, Group B streptococcus, and Escherichia coli. These children can become critically ill very rapidly; therefore, initial management should include a fluid bolus of 20 mL/kg and broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover for the most common pathogens in this age group. The most appropriate antibiotics to use in neonates with a fever are ampicillin and cefotaxime. Ampicillin will cover Listeria monocytogenes while cefotaxime will cover Group B streptococcus and Escherichia coli. If there is a history of maternal infection with herpes simplex virus, acyclovir should be added to the empiric broad-spectrum treatment. These patients universally need to be admitted to the hospital for IV antibiotics and observation until all cultures have returned.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 65-year-old man with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with a painful area of erythema on his anterior thigh which has been rapidly expanding over the last few hours. He is diagnosed with necrotizing fasciitis and taken to the operating room. Which of the following is most likely to be seen on tissue culture?
Correct
Most cases of necrotizing fasciitis are caused by polymicrobial infection with gram-negative, gram-positive, andanaerobic bacteria. Commonly identified organisms include S. aureus, beta-hemolytic streptococci, enterococci, enterobacteria, and anerobes such as Bacteroides and Clostridium species. Necrotizing fasciitis is characterized by deep tissue infection involving subcutaneous fat, fascia, and muscle layers, as opposed to cellulitis, where infection does not extend past the dermal layer. Infection may begin by direct bacterial invasion of subcutaneous tissue via breaks in the skin from an abscess or wound, or via spread from a perforated viscous such as colon, rectum, or anus. The hallmark of necrotizing fasciitis is pain out of proportion to physical exam. Early recognition is critical as necrotizing fasciitis is rapidly progressive and has a high mortality rate. General surgery should be consulted as soon as necrotizing fasciitis is suspected. It is treated with surgical debridement, intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics, and hemodynamic support.
Necrotizing fasciitis of the perineal, perianal, or scrotal is called Fournier’s gangrene.
Incorrect
Most cases of necrotizing fasciitis are caused by polymicrobial infection with gram-negative, gram-positive, andanaerobic bacteria. Commonly identified organisms include S. aureus, beta-hemolytic streptococci, enterococci, enterobacteria, and anerobes such as Bacteroides and Clostridium species. Necrotizing fasciitis is characterized by deep tissue infection involving subcutaneous fat, fascia, and muscle layers, as opposed to cellulitis, where infection does not extend past the dermal layer. Infection may begin by direct bacterial invasion of subcutaneous tissue via breaks in the skin from an abscess or wound, or via spread from a perforated viscous such as colon, rectum, or anus. The hallmark of necrotizing fasciitis is pain out of proportion to physical exam. Early recognition is critical as necrotizing fasciitis is rapidly progressive and has a high mortality rate. General surgery should be consulted as soon as necrotizing fasciitis is suspected. It is treated with surgical debridement, intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics, and hemodynamic support.
Necrotizing fasciitis of the perineal, perianal, or scrotal is called Fournier’s gangrene.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
Which of the following is the highest severity sepsis syndrome met by the following patient: 87-year-old male with diabetes, pneumonia, heart rate 110 beats per minute, temperature 101.6°F, creatinine 3.4 mg/dL (baseline is 0.8 mg/dL), and blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg?
Correct
That’s correct!
Sepsis is defined as meeting systemic inflammatory response criteria (SIRS) plus a suspected infection. Severe sepsis is sepsis plus organ dysfunction. Septic shock is sepsis plus hypotension not responsive to a fluid challenge. This patient has SIRS (elevated heart rate and elevated temperature), renal dysfunction (new creatinine elevation), but a normal blood pressure; thus, he meets the definition for severe sepsis.
Incorrect
That’s correct!
Sepsis is defined as meeting systemic inflammatory response criteria (SIRS) plus a suspected infection. Severe sepsis is sepsis plus organ dysfunction. Septic shock is sepsis plus hypotension not responsive to a fluid challenge. This patient has SIRS (elevated heart rate and elevated temperature), renal dysfunction (new creatinine elevation), but a normal blood pressure; thus, he meets the definition for severe sepsis.
We will start the day with Dr. McElroy’s follow up rounds, a special guest sepsis lecture, and then some hearty Flip by Drs. Matt McRae, and Brad Smith. This will be followed by M&M with our very own Dr. Loftus. This will be followed by a special M&M with the good Dr. Loftus.
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
A 24-year-old man presents to the ED after a syncopal episode. He is an avid hiker. He had a rash a few weeks prior that has since cleared. Vital signs are BP 100/74 mm Hg, HR 50 beats/minute, RR 18 breaths/minute, and T 99.1°F. What is the most likely finding on this patient’s electrocardiogram?
Correct
This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of Lyme disease. Lyme disease is the most common vector-borne disease in the United States. It is endemic to New England, the mid-Atlantic states, and the upper Midwest. It is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi and transmitted by the Ixodes dammini tick, more commonly known as the deer tick. The tick must be attached for more than 48 hours for transmission to occur. There are three stages of clinical Lyme disease. Early Lyme disease is characterized by erythema migrans, an erythematous blanching patch that may have central clearing and classically has a “bull’s eye” appearance. Hematogenous spread leads to diffuse erythema migrans, which spares the palms and soles. Acute disseminated Lyme disease occurs approximately 4 weeks after initial infection and can include meningoencephalitis, Bell’s palsy (which may be bilateral), or carditis which often manifests with variable AV block. This AV blockade may be high-grade and require temporary transcutaneous or transvenous pacing; however, it nearly universally resolves gradually with IV antibiotics and has a favorable prognosis with no need for permanent pacemaker placement. Late Lyme disease develops greater than 1 year after initial infection and includes chronic arthritis with or without chronic subtle encephalopathy. Only 50% of patients remember a tick bite; thus, diagnosis may be difficult. Erythema migrans is diagnostic; however, not all patients present with this finding. Initial screening involves ELISA testing with Western Blot and PCR to confirm the diagnosis. If the diagnosis is suspected, empiric treatment should be administered. Treatment for early Lyme disease and mild acute disseminated Lyme disease is doxycycline for 3-4 weeks. In pregnant women or children under the age of 8 years, amoxicillin should be substituted. Patients with neurologic or cardiac manifestations should be admitted and treated with IV ceftriaxone.
Incorrect
This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of Lyme disease. Lyme disease is the most common vector-borne disease in the United States. It is endemic to New England, the mid-Atlantic states, and the upper Midwest. It is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi and transmitted by the Ixodes dammini tick, more commonly known as the deer tick. The tick must be attached for more than 48 hours for transmission to occur. There are three stages of clinical Lyme disease. Early Lyme disease is characterized by erythema migrans, an erythematous blanching patch that may have central clearing and classically has a “bull’s eye” appearance. Hematogenous spread leads to diffuse erythema migrans, which spares the palms and soles. Acute disseminated Lyme disease occurs approximately 4 weeks after initial infection and can include meningoencephalitis, Bell’s palsy (which may be bilateral), or carditis which often manifests with variable AV block. This AV blockade may be high-grade and require temporary transcutaneous or transvenous pacing; however, it nearly universally resolves gradually with IV antibiotics and has a favorable prognosis with no need for permanent pacemaker placement. Late Lyme disease develops greater than 1 year after initial infection and includes chronic arthritis with or without chronic subtle encephalopathy. Only 50% of patients remember a tick bite; thus, diagnosis may be difficult. Erythema migrans is diagnostic; however, not all patients present with this finding. Initial screening involves ELISA testing with Western Blot and PCR to confirm the diagnosis. If the diagnosis is suspected, empiric treatment should be administered. Treatment for early Lyme disease and mild acute disseminated Lyme disease is doxycycline for 3-4 weeks. In pregnant women or children under the age of 8 years, amoxicillin should be substituted. Patients with neurologic or cardiac manifestations should be admitted and treated with IV ceftriaxone.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 21-year-old man presents with a rash and fever. He was recently camping in North Carolina. He noted a rash that began on his ankles and wrists that is now present on his chest and back. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is a tick-borne illness caused by Rickettsia rickettsii and transmitted to humans through the dog tick or Rocky Mountain wood tick. The disease is endemic in all 48 states, but most commonly occurs in thesoutheastern United States. After infection, the organism invades and replicates inside of vascular endothelial cells. The most common victims of RMSF are children. After a mean incubation period of 7 days, patients develop classic symptoms including fever, headache, myalgias, nausea and vomiting. Fever is usually the first symptom and may be the only symptom for up to one week. The rash is classically small red macules that are sometimes pruritic. The rash begins only on the ankles and feet and then spreads to the palms and soles. Thereafter, it moves centrally to the rest of the arms, legs and torso. After several days, the rash becomes papular and deeper red. In the early stage the rash blanches with direct palpation and enhances with warm compresses. In later stages, the rash becomes petechial and application of proximal pressure causes additional lesions to appear distally (Rumpel-Leede phenomenon). The cardiovascular system is affected with myocarditis and an impaired ejection fraction in some patients. Neurologically, the most common symptom is headache but may include seizures and an eosinophilic meningitis. Diagnosis is made through the identification of serum antibodies present 5 to 7 days after the infection begins. Treatment is with doxycycline
Babesiosis (A) is a tick-borne illnesses transmitted by the Ixodes tick in the northeastern part of the United States. The clinical symptoms are similar to malaria as the organism infects red blood cells causing fevers, myalgias headache and significant sweats. Approximately 20% of patients with babesiosis are co-infected with Lyme disease. Leptospirosis (B)is most commonly transmitted to humans through the urine of rodents. In most cases, patients have a flu-like illness with fever, myalgia and severe headache. Ten percent of patients develop severe leptospirosis with liver and renal failure.Lyme disease (C) is the most common vector-borne disease in the United States. The Ixodes ticks transmit the organism Borrelia burgdorferi. The initial manifestation of Lyme disease is the classic rash erythema migrans described as an erythematous macule with central clearing. With time patients develop fever, arthralgias, adenopathy and ultimately arthritis. Neurologically patients may develop unilateral or bilateral Bell’s palsy, aseptic meningitis and a neuritis causing similar pain symptoms to post-herpetic neuralgia.
Incorrect
Rocky Mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is a tick-borne illness caused by Rickettsia rickettsii and transmitted to humans through the dog tick or Rocky Mountain wood tick. The disease is endemic in all 48 states, but most commonly occurs in thesoutheastern United States. After infection, the organism invades and replicates inside of vascular endothelial cells. The most common victims of RMSF are children. After a mean incubation period of 7 days, patients develop classic symptoms including fever, headache, myalgias, nausea and vomiting. Fever is usually the first symptom and may be the only symptom for up to one week. The rash is classically small red macules that are sometimes pruritic. The rash begins only on the ankles and feet and then spreads to the palms and soles. Thereafter, it moves centrally to the rest of the arms, legs and torso. After several days, the rash becomes papular and deeper red. In the early stage the rash blanches with direct palpation and enhances with warm compresses. In later stages, the rash becomes petechial and application of proximal pressure causes additional lesions to appear distally (Rumpel-Leede phenomenon). The cardiovascular system is affected with myocarditis and an impaired ejection fraction in some patients. Neurologically, the most common symptom is headache but may include seizures and an eosinophilic meningitis. Diagnosis is made through the identification of serum antibodies present 5 to 7 days after the infection begins. Treatment is with doxycycline
Babesiosis (A) is a tick-borne illnesses transmitted by the Ixodes tick in the northeastern part of the United States. The clinical symptoms are similar to malaria as the organism infects red blood cells causing fevers, myalgias headache and significant sweats. Approximately 20% of patients with babesiosis are co-infected with Lyme disease. Leptospirosis (B)is most commonly transmitted to humans through the urine of rodents. In most cases, patients have a flu-like illness with fever, myalgia and severe headache. Ten percent of patients develop severe leptospirosis with liver and renal failure.Lyme disease (C) is the most common vector-borne disease in the United States. The Ixodes ticks transmit the organism Borrelia burgdorferi. The initial manifestation of Lyme disease is the classic rash erythema migrans described as an erythematous macule with central clearing. With time patients develop fever, arthralgias, adenopathy and ultimately arthritis. Neurologically patients may develop unilateral or bilateral Bell’s palsy, aseptic meningitis and a neuritis causing similar pain symptoms to post-herpetic neuralgia.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
Which of the following statements regarding AIDS and parasitic infections is TRUE?
Correct
Isospora and coccidial organisms may cause an almost cholera-like diarrheal illness. Eradication is very difficult.
Malaria and invasive amebiasis are not considered opportunistic infections.
AIDS patients have much more severe allergic manifestations to the antiparasitics.
Schistosomiasis enhances HIV pathogenesis.
Incorrect
Isospora and coccidial organisms may cause an almost cholera-like diarrheal illness. Eradication is very difficult.
Malaria and invasive amebiasis are not considered opportunistic infections.
AIDS patients have much more severe allergic manifestations to the antiparasitics.
Schistosomiasis enhances HIV pathogenesis.
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A macrocytic anemia would suggest infection from which parasite?
Correct
The fish tapeworm is associated with pernicious anemia. Hookworm and whipworm are associated with gastrointestinal iron loss and microcytic anemia. Malaria causes hemolytic anemia.
Incorrect
The fish tapeworm is associated with pernicious anemia. Hookworm and whipworm are associated with gastrointestinal iron loss and microcytic anemia. Malaria causes hemolytic anemia.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Parasite-induced loss of vision would be suggested by which of the following?
Correct
Onchocerciasis is a major cause of blindness worldwide. Ninety-five percent of cases occur in Africa. The biting flies are found near rivers, and humans are the only host for the parasite. It occupies the skin, resulting in pruritus, edema, and later atrophy with redundant skin folds. The following are other causes of parasite-induced visual loss: Toxoplasma can cause retinal hemorrhages, Toxocara can cause inflammatory retinal granulomas, and Acanthamoeba may cause a keratitis in contact lens wearers.
Incorrect
Onchocerciasis is a major cause of blindness worldwide. Ninety-five percent of cases occur in Africa. The biting flies are found near rivers, and humans are the only host for the parasite. It occupies the skin, resulting in pruritus, edema, and later atrophy with redundant skin folds. The following are other causes of parasite-induced visual loss: Toxoplasma can cause retinal hemorrhages, Toxocara can cause inflammatory retinal granulomas, and Acanthamoeba may cause a keratitis in contact lens wearers.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
A 45-year-old man with HIV-AIDS and a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm3 presents with several days of fever and dry cough. His oxygen saturation is 85% on room air. Lung auscultation is notable for decreased breath sounds bilaterally and crackles at the bases. A chest X-ray reveals bilateral interstitial infiltrates. Which of the following medication regimens is most appropriate?
Correct
This patient has clinical and radiographic evidence for pneumonia. Community-acquired pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of pneumonia in HIV-infected patients. Therefore, he should receive ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Additionally, his low CD4 count puts him at risk of opportunistic infections, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP), formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). PJP is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients. Signs and symptoms of PJP pneumonia include fatigue, fever, cough, and hypoxia. Chest radiographs typically show diffuse interstitial infiltrates, though negative radiographs are not unusual in PJP. Serum lactate dehydrogenase levels are often elevated. Initial therapy for PJP includes trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. In severe cases, corticosteroids are also given. The indications for corticosteroid use include an arterial oxygen partial pressure of < 70 mm Hg (equivalent to an oxygen saturation of <~93%) and an alveolar-arterial gradient > 35 mm Hg. Prophylaxis with oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is recommended for all HIV-positive patients with CD4 counts less than 200 cells/mm3 to prevent PJP pneumonia.
Amphotericin B (A) is used in the treatment of disseminated fungal infections, such as Aspergillus fumigatus and Cryptococcus neoformans. These infections are typically seen at a higher degree of immunosuppression. Azithromycin and ceftriaxone (B) treat most community-acquired pathogens, but do not cover opportunistic infections like PJP. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and prednisone (D) is incorrect because the patient should also receive treatment for community-acquired pneumonia.
Incorrect
This patient has clinical and radiographic evidence for pneumonia. Community-acquired pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of pneumonia in HIV-infected patients. Therefore, he should receive ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Additionally, his low CD4 count puts him at risk of opportunistic infections, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP), formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). PJP is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients. Signs and symptoms of PJP pneumonia include fatigue, fever, cough, and hypoxia. Chest radiographs typically show diffuse interstitial infiltrates, though negative radiographs are not unusual in PJP. Serum lactate dehydrogenase levels are often elevated. Initial therapy for PJP includes trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. In severe cases, corticosteroids are also given. The indications for corticosteroid use include an arterial oxygen partial pressure of < 70 mm Hg (equivalent to an oxygen saturation of <~93%) and an alveolar-arterial gradient > 35 mm Hg. Prophylaxis with oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is recommended for all HIV-positive patients with CD4 counts less than 200 cells/mm3 to prevent PJP pneumonia.
Amphotericin B (A) is used in the treatment of disseminated fungal infections, such as Aspergillus fumigatus and Cryptococcus neoformans. These infections are typically seen at a higher degree of immunosuppression. Azithromycin and ceftriaxone (B) treat most community-acquired pathogens, but do not cover opportunistic infections like PJP. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole and prednisone (D) is incorrect because the patient should also receive treatment for community-acquired pneumonia.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
Which of the following best describes the most common symptoms of acute human immunodeficiency virus infection?
Correct
In the United States, an estimated 1.2 million individuals are HIV positive, with approximately 50,000 people newly diagnosed each year. The clinical presentation of acute HIV infection, also known as acute retroviral syndrome, is variable both in type and severity of symptoms. The classic presentation is abrupt onset of a viral-like illness, which develops 10–14 days following exposure to the virus. Symptoms may include fever, malaise, sore throat, headache, arthralgias, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and rash. Physical examination findings vary and may include generalized lymphadenopathy, nonexudative pharyngitis, mild hepatosplenomegaly, mucocutaneous ulcers, and oral thrush. A maculopapular rash on the thorax, face, and limbs may also be present. Due to the nonspecific and self-limited nature of symptoms, many affected individuals do not seek care and thus the true incidence of acute HIV is unknown. However, experts estimate that 60–90% of individuals who contract HIV develop an acute illness. Identification of acute HIV has tremendous public health implications, as acute infection represents the peak infectivity of the disease, characterized by high levels of viral shedding. Routine HIV tests used in most emergency departments measure anti-HIV antibodies, which are often falsely negative during acute infection. Therefore, when acute HIV is suspected, nucleic acid amplification tests, which directly measure viral RNA in the patient’s blood, should be utilized.
Incorrect
In the United States, an estimated 1.2 million individuals are HIV positive, with approximately 50,000 people newly diagnosed each year. The clinical presentation of acute HIV infection, also known as acute retroviral syndrome, is variable both in type and severity of symptoms. The classic presentation is abrupt onset of a viral-like illness, which develops 10–14 days following exposure to the virus. Symptoms may include fever, malaise, sore throat, headache, arthralgias, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and rash. Physical examination findings vary and may include generalized lymphadenopathy, nonexudative pharyngitis, mild hepatosplenomegaly, mucocutaneous ulcers, and oral thrush. A maculopapular rash on the thorax, face, and limbs may also be present. Due to the nonspecific and self-limited nature of symptoms, many affected individuals do not seek care and thus the true incidence of acute HIV is unknown. However, experts estimate that 60–90% of individuals who contract HIV develop an acute illness. Identification of acute HIV has tremendous public health implications, as acute infection represents the peak infectivity of the disease, characterized by high levels of viral shedding. Routine HIV tests used in most emergency departments measure anti-HIV antibodies, which are often falsely negative during acute infection. Therefore, when acute HIV is suspected, nucleic acid amplification tests, which directly measure viral RNA in the patient’s blood, should be utilized.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 39-year-old man presents to the ED with the findings seen in the above image. The lesions cannot be scraped off the surface of his tongue. Which of the following statements best describes this patient’s diagnosis?
Correct
The tongue lesions seen in the image are characteristic for oral hairy leukoplakia(OHL). This is a disease of the lingual squamous epithelium and is thought to be caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It is highly specific for concomitant HIV infection and rarely seen in other immunocompromised states. OHL is often confused with oral candidiasis (thrush). However, unlike the lesions of thrush, OHL cannot be scraped off the tongue.
OHL most commonly develops on the lateral portions of the tongue, not the posterior oropharynx (A). The disease is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, unlike oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast (C)Candida albicans. The plaques are painless (D), and most patients are asymptomatic.
Incorrect
The tongue lesions seen in the image are characteristic for oral hairy leukoplakia(OHL). This is a disease of the lingual squamous epithelium and is thought to be caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). It is highly specific for concomitant HIV infection and rarely seen in other immunocompromised states. OHL is often confused with oral candidiasis (thrush). However, unlike the lesions of thrush, OHL cannot be scraped off the tongue.
OHL most commonly develops on the lateral portions of the tongue, not the posterior oropharynx (A). The disease is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, unlike oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast (C)Candida albicans. The plaques are painless (D), and most patients are asymptomatic.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
12 year old presents to the emergency department with sudden fatigue and shortness of breath. He has a history of sickle cell disease. HR 125, BP 110/86, RR 18, temp. 38.6. Physical exam is significant for finding shown in picture below. IV access is obtained and labs are sent. What is the cause of the patients condition?
Correct
Aplastic crisis is defined as having a reticulocyte count of less than 1%. Patients with sickle cell disease who are infected with Parvovirus B19 are at risk for developing an aplastic crisis. Parvovirus B19 is the causative agent of Fifth disease and can lead to an aplastic crisis by causing a temporary arrest of red blood cell production. This is characterized by a sudden decrease in hemoglobin production by bone marrow resulting in severe anemia. Patients may present with pallor, lethargy, and shock. Treatment includes hemodynamic support and blood transfusion.
Labs that should be sent include type and cross, CBC, and reticulocyte count. This is usually self-limited disease and resolves once the viral syndrome resolves. Blood transfusions to support the patient through the anemia is the treatment along with other supportive measures.
Incorrect
Aplastic crisis is defined as having a reticulocyte count of less than 1%. Patients with sickle cell disease who are infected with Parvovirus B19 are at risk for developing an aplastic crisis. Parvovirus B19 is the causative agent of Fifth disease and can lead to an aplastic crisis by causing a temporary arrest of red blood cell production. This is characterized by a sudden decrease in hemoglobin production by bone marrow resulting in severe anemia. Patients may present with pallor, lethargy, and shock. Treatment includes hemodynamic support and blood transfusion.
Labs that should be sent include type and cross, CBC, and reticulocyte count. This is usually self-limited disease and resolves once the viral syndrome resolves. Blood transfusions to support the patient through the anemia is the treatment along with other supportive measures.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
23 year old presents to the emergency department with a rash. They state that they were diagnosed with strep throat 5 days ago. They recently started on antibiotics which they do not know the name of. Yesterday they started to breakout in a rash which is shown below. What is the cause of the rash?
Correct
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. While young children with the disease typically have minimal, if any, symptoms related to the infection, adolescents and young adults usually have a more pronounced course. It is uncommonly seen in adults as most are immune due to a previous exposure. Patients may have a prodrome of low-grade fever, headache, and malaise. There is pharyngeal erythema and tonsillar exudates that may appear white, gray-green, or necrotic. Palatal petechiae can also be seen, but may be present in streptococcal pharyngitis as well. Severe fatigue is common and often the symptom that persists the longest. The lymphadenopathy is usually mildly tender, symmetric and involves the posterior cervical chain. Hepatosplenomegaly can be noted on examination. A generalized maculopapular rash almost always occurs following administration of amoxicillin or ampicillin although the mechanism of this is unclear. Diagnosis is made based on history and physical and can be confirmed with a positive heterophile antibody test (monospot test). Treatment is supportive. Symptoms generally resolve in 1-3 weeks although the fatigue may persist for months. Patients should refrain from contact sports for four weeks post-infection.
Incorrect
Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. While young children with the disease typically have minimal, if any, symptoms related to the infection, adolescents and young adults usually have a more pronounced course. It is uncommonly seen in adults as most are immune due to a previous exposure. Patients may have a prodrome of low-grade fever, headache, and malaise. There is pharyngeal erythema and tonsillar exudates that may appear white, gray-green, or necrotic. Palatal petechiae can also be seen, but may be present in streptococcal pharyngitis as well. Severe fatigue is common and often the symptom that persists the longest. The lymphadenopathy is usually mildly tender, symmetric and involves the posterior cervical chain. Hepatosplenomegaly can be noted on examination. A generalized maculopapular rash almost always occurs following administration of amoxicillin or ampicillin although the mechanism of this is unclear. Diagnosis is made based on history and physical and can be confirmed with a positive heterophile antibody test (monospot test). Treatment is supportive. Symptoms generally resolve in 1-3 weeks although the fatigue may persist for months. Patients should refrain from contact sports for four weeks post-infection.
In-service exam is over! Congratulations! Thanks everyone for your hard work. I know everyone is stoked to take this quiz, but don’t worry, we are now getting back to some real medicine. Welcome back to FLIP!
The comeback starts with a 2 week block of Infectious Disease. This week, don’t miss our special guest lecture right at 8am – Pharmacy will be given an EM catered talk on infectious disease focusing on antibiotics!
Mark and Amanda then will have a brief hands-on nerve block lecture. We then will have FLIP by Drs Warpinski and Vandenberg. This will be followed up by M&M by Dr. Vaizer.
This is another week with a lot of various topics that is difficult to cover with FOAM, and we would recommend H&N or the two EBM articles. However, EMRAP does a really nice job going over HIV on their C3 podcast, and a general boards-focused overview with their crunch time (both linked below). If you can only get one chapter in, read 191.
The next 3 weeks of conference will be dedicated to the inservice exam, which is on February 26th. We will have board reviews for each conference, including other content. It is now crunch time — hit up Rosh, HippoEM, PEER, or any board-oriented source the best you can. If you have any trouble accessing resources, please reach out to the chiefs. No quizzes during these weeks, just do as many questions/review as you can before conference to be ready for the review. Good luck!
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Question 1 of 10
1. Question
An 18 year old male is brought to a level 1 trauma center by ambulance with a stab wound to the right abdomen. Past medical history noncontributory. Vital signs are: BP 100/60 HR 85 RR 16 Temp 98.6F (37C). Exam reveals a diffuse tender abdomen with mild guarding and no rebound. A small amount of mesentery is noted to be extravasating from the wound. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Correct
The patient has a penetrating abdominal injury with evisceration of abdominal contents. Indications for the OR in penetrating abdominal injury include unstable vital signs, peritonitis w/ a +FAST examination, evisceration, and transabdominal GSW.
Incorrect
The patient has a penetrating abdominal injury with evisceration of abdominal contents. Indications for the OR in penetrating abdominal injury include unstable vital signs, peritonitis w/ a +FAST examination, evisceration, and transabdominal GSW.
Question 2 of 10
2. Question
A 24-year-old man presents after being struck by a motor vehicle while crossing the street. His secondary survey is notable for an unstable pelvis which is stabilized with a pelvic binder. His initial and repeat FAST examinations in Tredelenberg are negative but he remains hypotensive and tachycardic. Intravenous fluids and uncrossmatched blood are administered. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Correct
Patients with fractures of the bony pelvis are at high risk for hemorrhage due to the close proximity of the vascular structures to the pelvic bones. The internal iliac arteries and their subsequent branches provide most of the blood supply to the pelvic region. Most traumatic pelvic bleeding is venous, but in unstable patients an arterial source is suggested. In this patient with fractures and persistent hemodynamic instability without hemoperitoneum, the source of bleeding is likely the pelvis. After initial attempted stabilization with an external pelvic binder (either a sheet or commercial device), the patient needs angiography and embolization in interventional radiology. Angiography has very high success rates at controlling pelvic hemorrhage.
Incorrect
Patients with fractures of the bony pelvis are at high risk for hemorrhage due to the close proximity of the vascular structures to the pelvic bones. The internal iliac arteries and their subsequent branches provide most of the blood supply to the pelvic region. Most traumatic pelvic bleeding is venous, but in unstable patients an arterial source is suggested. In this patient with fractures and persistent hemodynamic instability without hemoperitoneum, the source of bleeding is likely the pelvis. After initial attempted stabilization with an external pelvic binder (either a sheet or commercial device), the patient needs angiography and embolization in interventional radiology. Angiography has very high success rates at controlling pelvic hemorrhage.
Question 3 of 10
3. Question
A 55-year old male presents to the ER after being struck by a car traveling approximately twenty miles per hour. Blood pressure is 140/90, heart rate is 105, respiratory rate is 16, and the patient is afebrile. Physical exam is significant for severe pain with manipulation of the pelvis as well as blood at the urethral meatus. X-ray is shown below. In addition to orthopedics consult, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
The correct answer is retrograde urethrogram to evaluate for urethral injury. Posterior urethral injuries can occur with pelvic fractures. A bladder fracture is also a possibility and a retrograde cystogram should be performed after the urethrogram to assess for bladder injury given the open book pelvic fracture on x-ray. A foley catheter is contraindicated until urethral injury has been excluded. IVP is rarely performed currently as CT scan can evaluate for renal injury reliably. Retrograde cystogram should be done as well but after a retrograde urethrogram. Intravenous pyelography may be done if suspect kidney injury but blood at the urethral meatus in the context of a pelvic fracture is more suggestive of a urethral or bladder injury. Placement of a foley catheter is contraindicated
Incorrect
The correct answer is retrograde urethrogram to evaluate for urethral injury. Posterior urethral injuries can occur with pelvic fractures. A bladder fracture is also a possibility and a retrograde cystogram should be performed after the urethrogram to assess for bladder injury given the open book pelvic fracture on x-ray. A foley catheter is contraindicated until urethral injury has been excluded. IVP is rarely performed currently as CT scan can evaluate for renal injury reliably. Retrograde cystogram should be done as well but after a retrograde urethrogram. Intravenous pyelography may be done if suspect kidney injury but blood at the urethral meatus in the context of a pelvic fracture is more suggestive of a urethral or bladder injury. Placement of a foley catheter is contraindicated
Question 4 of 10
4. Question
A 42-year-old man was a restrained driver in a motor vehicle collision. He complains of left flank pain and is hemodynamically stable. Which of the following is an indication for a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with IV contrast?
Correct
The presence of gross hematuria in the setting of trauma signifies a urologic injury until proven otherwise. Gross hematuria suggests either a lower or upper urinary tract injury. Bladder injury (e.g. rupture) is suggested by lower abdominal pain and tenderness or a positive FAST examination on evaluation of the pelvis. Urethral injuries may present with blood at the meatus in which case a retrograde urethrogram is indicated. Blunt trauma accounts for approximately 90% of renal injuries and 1-5% of hospitalized trauma patients have a renal injury. In most cases, clinically significant renal injuries are associated with gross hematuria. Rarely, a significant injury is found with microscopic hematuria but also hemodynamic instability. Therefore, if renal injury is suspected, gross hematuria in the hemodynamically stablepatientdictates further imaging evaluation.
Incorrect
The presence of gross hematuria in the setting of trauma signifies a urologic injury until proven otherwise. Gross hematuria suggests either a lower or upper urinary tract injury. Bladder injury (e.g. rupture) is suggested by lower abdominal pain and tenderness or a positive FAST examination on evaluation of the pelvis. Urethral injuries may present with blood at the meatus in which case a retrograde urethrogram is indicated. Blunt trauma accounts for approximately 90% of renal injuries and 1-5% of hospitalized trauma patients have a renal injury. In most cases, clinically significant renal injuries are associated with gross hematuria. Rarely, a significant injury is found with microscopic hematuria but also hemodynamic instability. Therefore, if renal injury is suspected, gross hematuria in the hemodynamically stablepatientdictates further imaging evaluation.
Question 5 of 10
5. Question
Which of the following organs is the most commonly injured in adult blunt abdominal trauma?
Correct
The spleen is the most common organ injured in adults in blunt abdominal trauma. Most blunt abdominal trauma results from motor vehicle collisions. Many splenic injuries, including high-grade lacerations, may be managed conservatively in the hemodynamically stable patient without other significant intraabdominal injuries.
Incorrect
The spleen is the most common organ injured in adults in blunt abdominal trauma. Most blunt abdominal trauma results from motor vehicle collisions. Many splenic injuries, including high-grade lacerations, may be managed conservatively in the hemodynamically stable patient without other significant intraabdominal injuries.
Question 6 of 10
6. Question
When performing a FAST exam and assessing the spleno-renal (peri-splenic) window, which of the following is the most likely location for free fluid to accumulate?
Correct
The correct answer is between the spleen and the diaphragm. Fluid is rarely seen between the spleen and kidney. Most commonly it is between the spleen and diaphragm, or simply around the spleen.
Incorrect
The correct answer is between the spleen and the diaphragm. Fluid is rarely seen between the spleen and kidney. Most commonly it is between the spleen and diaphragm, or simply around the spleen.
Question 7 of 10
7. Question
A 32-year-old woman presents after a motor vehicle crash in which she was the restrained driver. She has abdominal pain and is hemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals ecchymosis horizontally across the abdomen near the umbilicus. Bedside FAST examination results are negative, and a CT scan revels no injuries. Re-examination reveals a tender abdomen. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct
When a patient presents after suffering blunt abdominal trauma and has a concerning abdominal examination but a negative workup, decisions about appropriate management can be challenging. In this particular patient, the negative CT scan and FAST results are reassuring in terms of solid organ injury, but there is potential for other serious injuries, such as hollow viscus injury or pancreatic injury. The seatbelt sign (ecchymosis on the abdomen) suggests that the patient could have these injuries, so a period of observation in the hospital is warranted. Discharging the patient without a period of observation either in the hospital or in the emergency department creates the potential for the patient to suffer significant complications from undiagnosed intraabdominal injury. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage would be helpful in this patient if grossly positive but might not otherwise definitively determine the indication for surgical management. The formal abdominal ultrasound examination done in the radiology department is no more accurate than a FAST examination done by an experienced provider for identifying hollow viscus injury or acute pancreatic injury.
Incorrect
When a patient presents after suffering blunt abdominal trauma and has a concerning abdominal examination but a negative workup, decisions about appropriate management can be challenging. In this particular patient, the negative CT scan and FAST results are reassuring in terms of solid organ injury, but there is potential for other serious injuries, such as hollow viscus injury or pancreatic injury. The seatbelt sign (ecchymosis on the abdomen) suggests that the patient could have these injuries, so a period of observation in the hospital is warranted. Discharging the patient without a period of observation either in the hospital or in the emergency department creates the potential for the patient to suffer significant complications from undiagnosed intraabdominal injury. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage would be helpful in this patient if grossly positive but might not otherwise definitively determine the indication for surgical management. The formal abdominal ultrasound examination done in the radiology department is no more accurate than a FAST examination done by an experienced provider for identifying hollow viscus injury or acute pancreatic injury.
Question 8 of 10
8. Question
A 28-year-old woman presents after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision. She is 32-weeks pregnant and was the back seat passenger wearing only a lap belt. Her blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg, heart rate is 130 beats/minute, respiratory rate is 24 breaths/minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 98% on 10 L via non-rebreather mask. Her abdomen is tender to palpation, with rebound and guarding. The fetus is felt in a transverse lie and you can easily palpate the fetal extremities. There is no fetal cardiac activity on ultrasound. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
The patient is suffering from an acute traumatic uterine rupture a rare complication following blunt and penetrating abdominal trauma. The classic signs include maternal shock, abdominal pain, peritoneal signs, abnormal fetal lie, easily palpable fetal anatomy and fetal demise. The use of a lap belt alone increases the risk of developing uterine rupture and placental abruption. The patient should be aggressively resuscitated and emergent surgical and obstetric consultation is necessary for operative repair.
Incorrect
The patient is suffering from an acute traumatic uterine rupture a rare complication following blunt and penetrating abdominal trauma. The classic signs include maternal shock, abdominal pain, peritoneal signs, abnormal fetal lie, easily palpable fetal anatomy and fetal demise. The use of a lap belt alone increases the risk of developing uterine rupture and placental abruption. The patient should be aggressively resuscitated and emergent surgical and obstetric consultation is necessary for operative repair.
Question 9 of 10
9. Question
A 19-year-old male with no past medical history, presents with abdominal pain. He was skateboarding and doing tricks off a handrail, when he slipped and landed directly onto his abdomen against the handrail. He denies loss of consciousness, but has developed progressively worsening epigastric abdominal pain with nausea and vomiting. Vital signs are BP 124 /72, HR 99, RR 24, Temp 99.2°F, and 98% on room air. CT abdomen was negative. Electrolytes are within normal limits, WBC 13.1, Hemoglobin 14.5 g/dL, AST 56 IU/L, ALT 55 IU/L, Alkaline phosphatase 60 IU/L, total bilirubin 0.9 mg/dL, lipase 66 IU/L. Given the scenario, which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
Correct
CT imaging is excellent in detecting solid organ injury (e.g. kidney, liver, spleen, pancreas) but not good at detecting mesenteric hematoma/tears or hollow viscus injury.
Incorrect
CT imaging is excellent in detecting solid organ injury (e.g. kidney, liver, spleen, pancreas) but not good at detecting mesenteric hematoma/tears or hollow viscus injury.
Question 10 of 10
10. Question
What is the most common sign of bladder injury?
Correct
Gross hematuria is the most common sign of bladder injury and occurs in more than 95% of the cases. Bladder injury most commonly results from blunt motor vehicle trauma and 80% are associated with fracture of the bony pelvis. Bladder injuries include contusions, intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal ruptures and combination ruptures. Other signs of bladder rupture include suprapubic and lower abdominal pain, inability to urinate, pelvic fracture, and blood at the urethral meatus. Blood at the urethral meatus is a sign of underlying urethral or bladder injury, although is not the most common sign for bladder injury. A high-riding prostate is a sign of urethral injury, not bladder injury. An inability to urinate is a sign of bladder injury, however is not the most common sign.
Incorrect
Gross hematuria is the most common sign of bladder injury and occurs in more than 95% of the cases. Bladder injury most commonly results from blunt motor vehicle trauma and 80% are associated with fracture of the bony pelvis. Bladder injuries include contusions, intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal ruptures and combination ruptures. Other signs of bladder rupture include suprapubic and lower abdominal pain, inability to urinate, pelvic fracture, and blood at the urethral meatus. Blood at the urethral meatus is a sign of underlying urethral or bladder injury, although is not the most common sign for bladder injury. A high-riding prostate is a sign of urethral injury, not bladder injury. An inability to urinate is a sign of bladder injury, however is not the most common sign.
This week wraps up Trauma, covering Abdominal and Pelvic Trauma. We will begin with a quiz review, followed by oral boards with the Mamas and Papas, Dr. Aquino and Dr Twiner. We will then run FLIP with Drs. Vincent and McElroy.